Luke 17:30 “It will be just like this on the day the Son of Man is revealed."
I'd like to take this discussion from another forum to explain Luke 17 here, because Futurists tend to get totally absorbed with futurist applications of the "day of the Lord," instead of realizing that Jesus applied it in several ways--not just one way. I would say that Jesus meant to focus the "day of the Lord" more on the 70 AD judgment of Christ when he said this, even though the "day of the Lord" was also understand to mean "the day the Kingdom of God would come."
But Jesus was focusing on the fall of the temple in this passage, the Olivet Discourse, and he was asked to explain how this "day" can be justified in the light of the coming of the "day of the Lord" in which the Kingdom would come? Jesus' response is to indicate that the "day of the Lord" can be applied generally even in his own generation, when people are wicked and think judgment is a long ways off.
Eze 12.26 The word of the Lord came to me: 27 “Son of man, the Israelites are saying, ‘The vision he sees is for many years from now, and he prophesies about the distant future.’
28 “Therefore say to them, ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: None of my words will be delayed any longer; whatever I say will be fulfilled, declares the Sovereign Lord.’”
Jesus was using a very general application of the word "day" in this passage, because he was in fact clarifying between different views of the "day" of the Lord. The Pharisees saw that "day" as an historical deliverance, perhaps by Messiah, in their own day. They were wicked and could not expect that this "day" would men a deliverance for them. They were "false Christs."
But I'm sure the Pharisees also believed that when Messiah came he would usher in the Kingdom of God in Israel. And so in that sense, they had "day" correct, that the "day of the Lord" ushers in the Kingdom of God. It just wouldn't happen when they thought it would happen or in the way they thought it would happen.
By contrast, the Disciples properly saw "day" as the time they were spending with Jesus. While he was with them the Kingdom was "near." He was the King, though they were confused about why he did not immediately usher in the Kingdom. And so, Jesus indicated the "days" they had with him would end (at his death and ascension), and they would long for a new day, the Kingdom of God, when he comes to proclaim himself King.
So Jesus described a "day" that would be emblematic of what the Kingdom's coming would mean for false Christs and unbelievers. It would be an historical judgment against the wicked Jews who rejected him. They would not be accepted either in the day Jesus was with them or in the future Kingdom of God. But in the "day" they expected to be saved from the Romans they would actually be destroyed and see Jerusalem, along with the temple, destroyed.
I'd like to take this discussion from another forum to explain Luke 17 here, because Futurists tend to get totally absorbed with futurist applications of the "day of the Lord," instead of realizing that Jesus applied it in several ways--not just one way. I would say that Jesus meant to focus the "day of the Lord" more on the 70 AD judgment of Christ when he said this, even though the "day of the Lord" was also understand to mean "the day the Kingdom of God would come."
But Jesus was focusing on the fall of the temple in this passage, the Olivet Discourse, and he was asked to explain how this "day" can be justified in the light of the coming of the "day of the Lord" in which the Kingdom would come? Jesus' response is to indicate that the "day of the Lord" can be applied generally even in his own generation, when people are wicked and think judgment is a long ways off.
Eze 12.26 The word of the Lord came to me: 27 “Son of man, the Israelites are saying, ‘The vision he sees is for many years from now, and he prophesies about the distant future.’
28 “Therefore say to them, ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: None of my words will be delayed any longer; whatever I say will be fulfilled, declares the Sovereign Lord.’”
Jesus was using a very general application of the word "day" in this passage, because he was in fact clarifying between different views of the "day" of the Lord. The Pharisees saw that "day" as an historical deliverance, perhaps by Messiah, in their own day. They were wicked and could not expect that this "day" would men a deliverance for them. They were "false Christs."
But I'm sure the Pharisees also believed that when Messiah came he would usher in the Kingdom of God in Israel. And so in that sense, they had "day" correct, that the "day of the Lord" ushers in the Kingdom of God. It just wouldn't happen when they thought it would happen or in the way they thought it would happen.
By contrast, the Disciples properly saw "day" as the time they were spending with Jesus. While he was with them the Kingdom was "near." He was the King, though they were confused about why he did not immediately usher in the Kingdom. And so, Jesus indicated the "days" they had with him would end (at his death and ascension), and they would long for a new day, the Kingdom of God, when he comes to proclaim himself King.
So Jesus described a "day" that would be emblematic of what the Kingdom's coming would mean for false Christs and unbelievers. It would be an historical judgment against the wicked Jews who rejected him. They would not be accepted either in the day Jesus was with them or in the future Kingdom of God. But in the "day" they expected to be saved from the Romans they would actually be destroyed and see Jerusalem, along with the temple, destroyed.