My point is between the two Greek Texts, two different schools of thought have been generated and have been dispersed among the Protestant churches.It matters a lot.
They were never intended to be study Bibles.
For 400 years, the Protestant churches have all read and studied from the KJV. So now we are to accept the "dumbed down" versions?
As for the KJV, my question is WHY was 2 Thes. 2:8 translated into the singular, when the Textus Receptus Greek was clearly in the plural?
To me, it's as plain as day light. The translators wanted to substantiate that the Pope was "THE Antichrist, thereby supporting "a just cause" for the PR.
I must say, It's carried on very well, these past 400 years. But still not one iota of proof is available for PROVING that the Pope is "THE" AC, even though the W/H Greek "paints" a more colorful picture!
WHY?
Ans. There is no such thing as a singular, world leader called "THE" Antichrist. But, now that W/H have done such a fine job with their "paint by numbers" art work, you all are swallowing the "strong delusion" hook, line and sinker.