The 1st century way to be saved via water and Spirit baptism
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GISMYS_7
Well-Known Member
Jesus' last words on earth...
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
GISMYS_7
Well-Known Member
GISMYS_7
Well-Known Member
he that believeth not shall be damned==NOT he that believeth not ''and is not baptized""shall be damned.
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....Exactly opposite of what Jesus commanded in Mark 16:16.
Are you sure you are okay this morning?
Lets break this down for you...
Mark 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
He that owns a car and has gas shall drive; but he that owns not a car shall not drive.
GISMYS_7
Well-Known Member
GISMYS_7
Well-Known Member
The unbeliever is damned Not the unbaptized!! Mark 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but ""he that believeth not shall be damned.""
Did you know that Jesus was intelligent to the point that he knew unbelievers do not get baptized?
mailmandan
Well-Known Member
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved (general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. *NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned."
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? *BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
*HERMENEUTICS*
No, the omission of baptized in the unbelief portion is understanding the Jesus is not so dumb to think unbelievers get baptized.
mailmandan
Well-Known Member
Sadly, there are many unbelievers who will get baptized (in various false religions and cults) and such people may believe “mental assent” in the existence and in historical facts about Jesus, but they are not trusting in Him as the ALL-sufficient means of their salvation, but instead are trusting in water baptism and other works to save them.
GISMYS_7
Well-Known Member
LOL!! Who does not know that millions of unbelievers have been baptized just to please their mothers,girl friends, and such ??? Think!
GISMYS_7
Well-Known Member
mailmandan
Well-Known Member
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26).
What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? *BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
Phillip in Acts understood Mark 16:16.
He required the eunuch to believe before baptism.
Modernists require belief OR unbelief before baptism?
Is this how they process unbelievers getting baptized per Mark 16:16?
He required the eunuch to believe before baptism.
Modernists require belief OR unbelief before baptism?
Is this how they process unbelievers getting baptized per Mark 16:16?
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