The answer of hell and its origins

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Aunty Jane

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Again you should take your own advice. You only assume that your beliefs are the only ones that are right.
If you don't believe that what you hold is the truth, then why believe it......

If no one can come to the Father unless its through the Son....and no one can come to the Son without an invitation from the Father....we are up the creek without a paddle if we have not received an invitation to come into God's united family of Christ's disciples. It is the unity that identifies true Christians....all on the same page with no divisions or disagreements.....that does not describe the divided mess that Christendom is, whilst all claiming to be "the body of Christ"....its a hopelessly dismembered body if that is the case. The holy spirit unites people...it does not divide them, unless it is "separating the sheep from the goats"....something that has to take place in this "time of the end".

We already know that the majority will not pass muster. (Matt 7:13-14) Where will we find ourselves come the judgment?...among the "many" or the "few"?
 

The Learner

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In 1930 Rutherford produced a larger volume on the same theme called Life.But suddenly he repudiated his beliefs respecting the Jews. Life was withdrawn from circulation,[2] and in 1932 Rutherford proclaimed that "fleshly Israel" had no specific role to play in salvation history. He wrote:

The Jews were evicted from Palestine and `their house left unto them desolate' because they rejected Christ Jesus, the beloved and anointed King of Jehovah. To this day the Jews have not repented of this wrongful act committed by their forefathers. Many of them have been returned to the land of Palestine, but they have been induced to go there because of selfishness and for sentimental reasons.
During the long period elapsing from the time of their expulsion to the present day the Jews have not "borne the shame of the heathen" for Jehovah's sake, nor for the name of Christ. During all this period of time, and particularly during the World War, the true followers of Christ Jesus devoted to God, and to his kingdom, have been bearing the shame of the heathen and have been hated by all the nations for Christ's sake and the sake of Jehovah's name. (Matt. 24: 9: Mark 13: 13)
In contrast to this, during the World War the Jews received recognition of the heathen nations. In 1917 the Balfour Declaration, sponsored by the heathen governments of Satan's organization, came forth, recognized the Jews, and bestowed upon them great favors. In this the seventh world power [the British Empire] took the lead. Now Big Business and other wings of Satan's organization place the Jews alongside of and in the same category as the Gentiles. Heretofore even God's people have overlooked the fact that the affairs of God's kingdom with reference to the things of the earth are of far greater importance than the rehabilitation of that little strip of land on the eastern side of the Mediterranean sea. The Jews have received more attention at their hands than they have really deserved. Therefore this prophecy [of Isaiah] must have its chief fulfillment upon the true people of God's kingdom which are now on earth.
[3]

Perhaps the judge was simply anxious to assert that Jehovah's Witnesses were the "true Israel of God," but it seems that he had other reasons for making such a dramatic doctrinal switch without any more detailed explanation. While he may formerly have proclaimed himself a pro-Zionist "friend of the Hebrew people" in the tradition of his predecessor, he occasionally manifested a streak of deep-seated anti-semitism.
For example, while giving a talk on biblical prophecies respecting the return of the Jews to Palestine at a Canadian Bible Student convention in Winnipeg, Manitoba, in the early 1920s, he interjected:

"I'm speaking of the Palestine Jew, not the hooked-nosed, stooped-shouldered little individual who stands on the street corner trying to gyp you out of every nickel you've got."
[4]

But there were no doubt other factors in 1932 which impelled him to abandon the Bible Students' long tradition of philo-Judaism besides simple personal bias. During the late 1920s and early 1930s anti-semitism was becoming rampant in the United States and Canada with the rise of a variety of movements both religious and political.[5] And with the start of the Depression in 1929, it began to appear possible that the violently anti-Jewish Nazis could come to power in Germany - something which happened on January 30, 1933. So it seems clear that Rutherford was anxious to dissociate the Witnesses from the Jewish community as definitively as possible. Yet these facts can in no way excuse what he and his aids were shortly to do during the first year of the Third Reich.
 
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The Learner

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Following is part of an English translation of the Letter to Hitler.

"Dear Reichskanzler,

The Brooklyn headquarter of the Watchtower Society is pro German in an exemplary way and has been so for many years. For that reason, in 1918, the president of the Society and seven members of the board of directors were sentenced to 80 years in prison, because the president refused to use two of the magazines published in America under his direction for war propaganda against Germany. These two magazines, "The Watchtower" and "Bible Student" were the only magazines in America which refused to engage in anti-German propaganda and for that reason were prohibited and suppressed in America during the war.

In the very same manner, in course of the recent months the board of directors of our Society not only refused to engage in propaganda against Germany, but has even taken a position against it. The enclosed declaration underlines this fact and emphasizes that the people leading in such propaganda (Jewish businessmen and Catholics) also are the most rigorous persecutors of the work of our Society and its board of directors. This and other statements of the declaration are meant to repudiate the slanderous accusation, that Bible Researchers are supported by the Jews.

The conference of five thousand delegates also noted - as is expressed in the declaration - that the Bible Researchers of Germany are fighting for the very same high ethical goals and ideals which also the national government of the German Reich proclaimed respecting the relationship of humans to God, namely: honesty of the created being towards its creator.

The conference came to the conclusion that there are no contradictions when it comes to the relationship between the Bible Researchers of Germany to the national government of the German Reich. To the contrary, referring to the purely religious and unpolitical goals and efforts of the Bible Researchers, it can be said that these are in full agreement with the identical goals of the national government of the German Reich.

...

We are looking forward to your kind approval, which we hope to receive soon, and want to assure our highest respect to you, honorable Mr. Reichskanzler.

Yours faithfully,
Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society Magdeburg"
 

The Learner

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The Jehovah's Witnesses' Experience in the Nazi Concentration Camps: A History of Their Conflicts with the Nazi State​

JERRY BERGMAN
Journal of Church and State
Vol. 38, No. 1 (WINTER 1996), pp. 87-113 (27 pages)
Published By: Oxford University Press
 

The Learner

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The author examines the relationship between the Bibelforscher (the German name for the Jehovah’s Witnesses at the beginning of the Third Reich), the Nazis and the Jews, with particular reference to the 1933 Berlin-Wilmersdorf Convention, which approved the controversial ‘Declaration of Facts’. After outlining the development of the Witnesses under Rutherford’s leadership, it is argued that his statements about Jews may not have been ‘politically correct’ by present-day standards, but constituted an attempt to place them within the Watch Tower organisation’s views of salvation-history. His position is not wholly negative, and accords the Jews a place in the after-life. The Declaration was an unsuccessful attempt to gain sympathy from the Nazi regime; it did not confront Nazism, as some apologists have claimed, but it did not condemn the persecution of the Jews. The Declaration must be seen within the context of the period, which was before the Holocaust had begun, and hence it was more plausible to regard the Jews’ plight as part of the ‘fiery trial’ to which they were presumed to be subjected. While Rutherford made derogatory comments about some Jews, one has to be extremely cautious of applying the term ‘antisemitic’ to his ideas.

The purpose of this presentation is to examine some issues surrounding the imminent conflict between the Jehovah’s Witnesses and the Nazis when Hitler came to power in 1933. The Witnesses come under a variety of criticisms, not always mutually compatible, regarding their relationship with the Nazis and with the Jews. They have been variously criticised for initially ingratiating themselves to the Third Reich by expressions of support for Hitler, and for allegedly antisemitic statements to dissociate themselves from the much-hated German Jews. Conversely, their leader Joseph Franklin Rutherford has been criticised for needlessly provoking Nazi persecution by making inflammatory statements, and the Bibelforscher (as they were called in Germany at the time) have been alleged to bear apparent similarities with the Jews, thus inviting and aggravating the persecution that followed. I want to focus on the year 1933, being the year in which Hitler assumed office as Chancellor of Germany. It is also the year of the Bibelforscher’s much-criticised Berlin-Wilmersdorf Convention, which included Rutherford’s Wilmersdorf Declaration, more commonly referred to as the ‘Declaration of Facts’, allegedly compromising the Watchtower organisation with Hitler’s regime.

It seems difficult to achieve rational discussion on the issues surrounding the Bibelforscher in 1933. In all, there are three standpoints that can be identified: (1) Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society (WBTS) sources and the testimony of members who lived through the period, particularly Simone Liebster; (2) ex-member testimony, especially that of M. James Penton; and (3) neutral academic writers such as Holocaust historian Christine King and John Conway. Critics of the WBTS repeatedly accuse them of rewriting history to suit their own ends, while the WBTS refuses to address Penton’s arguments, claiming that since he is an ex-member he must have an axe to grind, and that his views cannot be of interest to them. Penton charges the Witnesses with wilfully falsifying evidence, and accuses King of naivety for her large measure of support for their account of events. I do not wish to comment further on the largely ad hominem arguments that beset the issues, but rather aim to unravel the events that occurred, and to evaluate the Witnesses’ stance on the Third Reich and the Jews.

Some background information on the Jehovah’s Witnesses may be useful at this point. The Watchtower organisation had commenced a globalisation process at the turn of the twentieth century. Founder-leader Charles Taze Russell had toured Europe in the last decade of the nineteenth century, and a German office of the WBTS was opened in 1902. Russell’s organisation was known as the International Bible Students’ Association, and it grew steadily in Germany, where it claimed a total membership of 25,000 by the 1930s. Joseph Franklin (‘Judge’) Rutherford assumed office in 1916, and began to introduce the more distinctive and revolutionary features that are now associated with the Witnesses. These included door-to-door work (commenced in 1927), the dissociation with mainstream Christianity, the refusal to celebrate festivals such as Christmas and Easter, and the notion that earthly governments belonged to Satan, hence the prohibition on saluting national flags and singing national anthems. Rutherford and a number of other leaders were imprisoned in the USA in 1918 for subversive activities. These consisted largely on Rutherford’s attacks on mainstream clergy, whom he regarded as the Antichrist (Kingdom News, no.3, 1 May 1918), and for encouraging refusal of conscription in the war. Matters were brought to a head by the publication of Russell’s posthumous The Finished Mystery in 1917, which mercilessly attacked the clergy. Whether this volume faithfully reflected Russell’s ideas is debateable: it was compiled by Clayton J. Woodworth and George H. Fisher, with Rutherford’s oversight.

In 1931, Rutherford announced at the IBSA convention at Columbus, Ohio, that the Bible Students were to be given a new name, ‘Jehovah’s Witnesses’. The WBTS organisation had not yet completed the globalisation process for which it is renowned today, and hence the German members continued to use their old name, Bibelforscher (Bible Students). It is in this context that the Bibelsforscher’s controversies within the Third Reich occur. I want to comment to two issues, one specific and one general: first, the 1933 Berlin Convention; and second, the allegedly antisemitic statements of Rutherford and the Bibelforscher.

The details surrounding the Berlin Convention continue to be debated. The event is noteworthy not only for its Declaration, but because it is alleged that, when attendees arrived, they found the stadium ‘bedecked’ with swastika symbols, and the Bibelforscher continued with their proceedings without removing them. Further, it is claimed, the Convention began with the singing of the German national anthem.
 

The Learner

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The Armenian genocide was the systematic killing and deportation of Armenians by the Turks of the Ottoman Empire. In 1915, during World War I, leaders of the Turkish government set in motion a plan to expel and massacre Armenians. By the early 1920s, when the genocide finally ended, between 600,000 and 1.5 million Armenians were dead, with many more forcibly removed from the country. Today, most historians call this event a genocide: a premeditated and systematic campaign to exterminate an entire people.
 

The Learner

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Dear face2face,

You said:
I don't believe in an immortal soul, or a literal place of eternal fire; I believe we go to the grave upon death, either permanently, or as the Apostles teach, a sleep awaiting the resurrection. For me this subject is extremely clear and because the traditional view lacks all Scriptural support, I am able to rest easy in the divine hope as recorded in the Bible.

I completely agree with your statement above. It gives me joy to hear that someone else on the forum understands the truth of Christ.

Can you agree with what I present below?

Here is what I have been shown from scripture:

SPIRIT + BODY = A LIVNG SOUL

The "soul" is our individual consciousness. When the body dies, so does the soul. At that point, we enter into the state of death until the bodily resurrection from the grave occurs. That resurrection is still yet future.

For those who remain "lost" upon their resurrection, Christ will begin their judgment. This is "symbolized" by the person being cast into the Lake of Fire". The LOF is not literal fire.

Then, after the "lost" have "paid the last penny" (Luke 12:59), He will have mercy upon them.

These two verses represent this time of mercy:

John 7:37 In the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried, saying, if any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink. 38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

Rev 22:17 And the Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely.

This call presented above will go out to the "lost" at the end of the final age.

Exo 23:16 And the feast of harvest, the firstfruits (the Elect) of thy labors, which thou hast sown in the field: and the feast of ingathering (the rest of mankind), which is in the end of the year, when thou hast gathered in thy labors out of the field.

Exo 34:22 And thou shalt observe the feast of weeks, of the firstfruits of wheat harvest, and the feast of ingathering at the year's end.


This time of "ingathering" which occurs at the "end of the year" is the Feast of Tabernacles. The Elect, as First Fruits, were harvested earlier (this present age) and the rest of mankind will be harvested into the Kingdom of Heaven at the end of the year when the full harvest is made.

So why are the Elect harvested early?

They will reign with Christ as "kings and priests" (Rev 5:10) in the final age over the "lost".

Their purpose: to bring in the harvest of mankind:

Luke 10:2 Therefore said he unto them, The harvest truly is great, but the laborers are few: pray ye therefore the Lord of the harvest, that he would send forth laborers into his harvest.

The Elect are the "few" (Mat 22:14) who were chosen from the foundation of the world. They were chosen to be Christ's laborers to bring in the full harvest of mankind.

When the Lord and His "Christ" (the Elect, Acts 4:26, Rev 11:15) have completed their work, all mankind will be saved:

1Tim 2:3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior; 4 who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

One last point: the purpose of the Lake of Fire (Christ's judgment) is stated in the verses below:

Isa 1:27 Zion shall be redeemed with judgment, and her converts with righteousness.

Psa 9:8 And he shall judge the world in righteousness, he shall minister judgment to the people in uprightness.

Isa 4:4 When the Lord shall have washed away the filth of the daughters of Zion, and shall have purged the blood of Jerusalem from the midst thereof by the spirit of judgment, and by the spirit of burning.

Amos 5:24 But let judgment run down as waters, and righteousness as a mighty stream.

Rev 15:4 Who shall not fear thee, O Lord, and glorify thy name? for thou only art holy: for all nations shall come and worship before thee; for thy judgments are made manifest.

Isa 26:9 With my soul have I desired thee in the night; yea, with my spirit within me will I seek thee early: for when thy judgments are in the earth, the inhabitants of the world will learn righteousness.


Everything that Christ does in this creation is because of His great love for mankind. Because all mankind is sinful and evil, His love demands that He make us into a new creation (new vessel, child of God) which is sinless and righteous. Christ does this by giving mankind a new spiritual nature (Holy Spirit). Then by His judgment, He destroys the old carnal spiritual nature and teaches us His righteousness. This process is called "conversion".

Christ loves His enemies by doing good them. He does good to them by converting all mankind.

Mankind, who is evil, does not understand the true purpose of judgment:

Prov 28:5 Evil men understand not judgment: but they that seek the LORD understand all things.

However, Christ does understand it and He will not "pervert" it as mankind does:

Job 34:12 Yea, surely God will not do wickedly, neither will the Almighty pervert judgment.

Joe

Hebrews 9:27

King James Version

27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:

After Jesus's Resurrection, this text does not allow a sleep peroid before the judgment.
 

The Learner

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google christian churches attacked news 2023
 

The Learner

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I wondered if you saw the sad news about the church shooting in Hamburg, Germany.

Seven people were killed (presumably including the gunman) in a church used by JW's.

The gunman was a former member of the group.


google who was the shooter Hamburg shooting
most sites are not loading

looks like the gun man was crazy. Police knew beforehand this was going to happen.
 
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The Learner

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I am mad the police did not stop the shooting by putting him under psychological investigation like we do in the USA.

googled Jehovah witness attacked 2023 world wide, that shooting is all that shows up.
 

RLT63

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If the thread gets shut down then so be it, scripture should be able to be discussed, not just people's opinion of what scripture says. Censoring the truth doesn't make it go away....as we have seen with C0vid. The more the truth comes out, the more we see that censorship was only to protect the guilty. God gave us free speech....we can agree or disagree.....that is our choice....or it should be.

Look up the word "theos" in Strongs Concordance....its primary definition from the Greek point of view is..."a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities".....that being said, Jesus can be "divine" without being "deity". Calling him "a god" simply means that he is one of many divine beings mentioned in scripture....but the only one called "ho logos".
Satan is even called "theos" in the Bible because he solicited worship for himself among the humans whom he could deceive. (Cor 4:3-4)

Jehovah called the judges in Israel "theos" (gods) because of their divine authority as his representatives.....
"Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him. 32 Jesus replied to them: “I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?” 33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.”[theos] 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? [theos] 35 If he called ‘gods’ [theos] those against whom the word of God [ho theos] came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36 do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s [ho theos] Son’? (John 10:31-36) Do you see what a difference one little word makes to translation? Please give it an honest look.

John 1:1 in Greek does not say what the English translation conveys.....
The Greek language had no special word for the singular (though at that time, nameless) God of the Jews....so it identified him with the definite article (the) "ho"....so look for that little word in the Greek here....
"In en the beginning archē was eimi the ho Word logos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi with pros · ho God theos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi God theos."

The entire meaning of that one famous verse is rendered invalid unless the definite article is acknowledged.....and when it is, it changes the whole meaning.

Jehovah is "ho theos" and Jesus is "ho logos" but if you look closely, the definite article is missing from the second mention of "theos", which makes "the Word" someone who was "with" THE God ("ho theos") but who was not "ho theos", but simply "theos" (correctly rendered "a god" or "divine one").


"Theos" in Greek does not just mean "God" as we understand it in English. As Strongs describes its primary definition, Jesus can rightly be called "a god". It does not mean that there are two gods, but two "divine mighty ones", only one of which is "ho theos" and he is clearly identified if you have eyes to see.

"Theos" is a word that described all the Greek gods, who were all distinguishable by name......but the God of the Jews had no name to identify him because the Jews had expunged it from their speech on a false premise. The ambiguous title "Lord" was substituted and then confused with the "Lord" Jesus Christ.
And the Greek had no capital letters or punctuation, so the use of capital letters to convey something that was never there, is also fraudulent.

We have to use the whole Bible, not just the parts that seem to agree with what we want to believe.
From a friend,
JW's will argue that in John 1:1 Jesus is "theos" whereas Jehovah is "ho theos". The claim they are trying to make is that Jesus is "a god" rather than "the God". It's a bad argument, and there are people far more adept at Greek who can explain why far better than I can. But the short of it is that the grammar of John 1:1 doesn't require the definite article in this instance.

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος
In the beginning was the Logos and the Logos was with God and the Logos was God.

The JW claim is that the second use of theos as in kai theos hen ho logos should be translated with the indefinite article since the Greek doesn't contain the definite article in relation to God "theos" vs "ho theos".

The problem with this is that it's simply wrong. As I said, there are people far better at explaining precisely why; but simply put here, there are plenty of times where the Greek lacks the definite article but it's obviously referring to God, aka "Jehovah". We don't then say that YHWH is "a god" simply because of a lack of the definite article in those cases.

We see examples of this right here in the first chapter of John, for example John 1:18

θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός, ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο
No one has ever seen God, the only-begotten Son, who is at the Father's side, has made Him known.

There's simply no way to argue, in this case, that theon "God" here refers to anyone else other than the Father, the context could not be any more clear; yet there's no definite article.

So the lack of a definite article does not mean an implied indefinite article, we don't translation John 1:18 as "no one has ever seen a god" because that's ridiculous.

But as I suggested in the beginning of my post, JW's have a nearly intentional bad understanding of Greek, I say "nearly intentional" because while most are simply being hoodwinked by what their teachers tell them--but I can't imagine those teachers, if they bother with even a little bit of Greek, wouldn't know any better and thus at some level it has to be intentional.

I will also reiterate that there are far better people than myself to go into more detail on these things.

Anti-Trinitarians consistently have to rely on bad arguments to make their case; because the doctrine of the Trinity is so very clearly expressed in the Church's historical understanding, reception, and engagement with Scripture and what the Christian Church has consistently been teaching from the beginning. While a mature articulation of Trinitarian theology may be "late", all the foundational building blocks are present from the beginning. The doctrine of the Trinity is the inevitable conclusion of taking what we read in Scripture and what the Apostles taught seriously. Every doctrinal alternative fails catastrophically.”
 
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Aunty Jane

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I'm sorry you had to run to a friend to prove us wrong.....:doldrums:
When there needs to be a differentiation between 'the LORD God' and 'the Lord Jesus Christ', the definite article is clearly seen in the Greek text.

Strongs primary definition of "theos" in Greek is..."a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities." So Jesus qualifies according to this definition as "a god" or "divine one". This one was "with "ho theos" "in the beginning", so how could be also be "ho theos"?

Here is an example that I am sure I have shown you before....
Look for the definite article "ho" with "theos" to show who is "ho theos" and who is just "theos".....
I hope you can follow the word for word Interlinear as it explains....

John 10:31-36....
"The ho Jews Ioudaios again palin brought bastazō stones lithos to hina stone lithazō him autos. 32 Jesus Iēsous said apokrinomai to them autos, · ho “ I have shown deiknymi you hymeis many polys noble kalos works ergon from ek the ho Father patēr; for dia which poios one ergon of them autos do you intend to stone lithazō me egō?” 33 The ho Jews Ioudaios answered apokrinomai him autos, “It is not ou for peri a noble kalos work ergon that we intend to stone lithazō you sy but alla for peri blasphemy blasphēmia; · kai it is because hoti you sy, a mere man anthrōpos, are making poieō yourself seautou God theos.” 34 Jesus Iēsous answered apokrinomai them autos, · ho “ Is it eimi not ou written graphō in en · ho your hymeis law nomos, ‘ I egō said legō, you are eimi gods theos’? 35 If ei the scripture called legō them ekeinos ‘ gods theos to pros whom hos the ho word logos of ho God theos came ginomai— and kai scripture graphē cannot ou dynamai be annulled lyō · ho— 36 do legō you hymeis say legō regarding the one whom hos the ho Father patēr consecrated hagiazō and kai sent apostellō into eis the ho world kosmos, ‘ You are blaspheming blasphēmeō,’ because hoti I said legō, ‘ I am eimi the Son hyios of ho God theos?
Both Jehovah and his Son are identified here by the use or absence of the definite article. Even the judges in Israel were referred to as "gods" by Jehovah himself. They were God's representatives and had his divine authority.

The differentiation there in the Greek is clear, but not if you read it in English....the Jews were not saying that Jesus was claiming to be "GOD (ho theos) but making himself out to be 'a god'. They had no grounds for blasphemy because Jesus never committed it. All he said was that he was "the Son of...."ho theos"...

Let me give you an idea of how accurate some of these verses are in their translation......when bias rears its ugly head....
This is John 1 :18...from the Mounce Interlinear....

"No one oudeis has horaō ever pōpote seen horaō God theos. The only monogenēs Son , himself God theos, the ho one who is eimi in eis the ho bosom kolpos of the ho Father patēr, he ekeinos has made him known exēgeomai."

What do we see there? "No one has ever seen God", yet thousands had seen Jesus. John 1:1 is dismantled.....now look at how Jesus is described next...."The only Son, himself God"...look at the Greek and tell me where it says "the only Son himself God"? As you can see from John 10:36 "son" is "hyios" and it is not even in the text, so how trustworthy are these translations if they deviate from the original to support something Jesus never taught?

You can believe as you wish, but please don't mess with the Greek and tell me what it clearly doesn't say. Perhaps your friend is as misled as you are...? Or perhaps I am....Jesus will be the judge.....right?
 

The Learner

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Maximilian Zerwick
Zerwick's introductory grammar first appeared in Latin in 1944. A revised and expanded edition was published in 1960, and an English translation with further additions followed three years later. Zerwick admits that Colwell has presented "not a few persuasive examples" that definite nouns preceding the verb usually appear without the article, but he cautions: "[Colwell's] theory has its appeal, but it is not easy to admit that the reason for this use of the article it to be found in a circumstance (order of words) which seems to belong to an altogether different category' (Zerwick, p. 56), Zerwick echoes other grammarians in viewing nouns without the article as being primarily qualitative:

The omission of the article shows that the speaker regards the person or thing not so much as this or that person or thing, but rather as such a person or thing, i.e. regards not the individual but rather nature or quality. (Zerwick, p. 55, emphasis in original).
Zerwick conflates qualitative and indefinite nouns into a single category and places THEOS in John 1:1c in that category:
for in the nature of things, the predicate commonly refers not to an individual or individuals as such, but to the class to which the subject belongs, to the nature or quality predicated of the subject; e.g. Jo 1,1 kai qeoV hn`o logoV, which attributes to the Word the divine nature (`o qeoV en`o logoV, at least in NT usage, would signify personal identity of the Word with the Father, since the latter is`o qeoV ) (IBID).
 

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In fact, this one mention of "class" is the only time Zerwick may be inferred to understand indefiniteness to be present in an anarthrous noun at all. His entire discussion of the non-use of the article centers on the qualitative aspects ascribed to the subject. Thus, for Zerwick, nouns are either definite or qualitative, and membership in a class is secondary to the attributes, characteristics, or qualities ascribed to the subject when the author omits the article.

Blass, Debrunner, and Funk
The Blass and Debrunner grammar, translated and revised by Robert Funk, generally endorses Colwell's study, but notes: "[Colwell] deals only with sentences in which the verb appears and only with nouns that are unambiguously definite" (BDF, p. 143). The latter point will be developed in greater detail by Dixon (see below) with regard to the application of Colwell's Rule and John 1:1c. Blass and Debrunner have little to say about predicate nouns that lack the article, but in reference to Mark 7:15 remark: "the idea which runs through the whole discourse is that there really is something which produces this effect, and this given category is now referred to a particular subject" (IBID). Thus, it may be inferred that Blass and Debrunner view anarthrous nouns in much the same was as Zerwick, primarily ascribing qualities or characteristics to the subject rather than membership in a class (the category itself is "referred" to the subject - the subject is not said to be placed in the category).
 

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Lane McGaughy
McGaughy's published dissertation on the use of the Greek verb EINAI ("to be") has been widely recognized for its thoroughness. McGaughy examines Colwell's statistics and finds several of the "exceptions" to his rule that Colwell noted are, in fact, not exceptions at all. Thus several scholars have recognized McGaughy as supporting Colwell's conclusion that THEOS in John 1:1c is definite (e.g., Carson, p. 137) or has even given it greater weight (e.g., Grudem, p. 234, n. 12 ). McGaughy says that John 1:1 "should be translated 'And the Word was God' rather than 'And the Word was divine'" (McGaughy, p. 77). He cites Zerwick approvingly: "A noun preceding the verb and lacking the article should not be regarded as 'qualitative' on the mere grounds of the absence of the article" (IBID). Interestingly, McGaughy has not, to my knowledge, addressed Harner's article (which appeared one year after McGaughy's study), which distinguishes between a qualitative meaning and the weaker adjectival "divine" that McGaughy argues against.

Phillip B. Harner
The impact of Phillip B. Harner's study of qualitative anarthrous predicate nouns on the interpretation of John 1:1 cannot be overemphasized. Harner noted that "Colwell was almost entirely concerned with the question whether anarthrous predicate nouns were definite or indefinite, and he did not discuss at any length the problem of their qualitative significance" (Harner, p. 76). Again, Colwell, like most older grammarians, saw qualitative nouns as more or less the same as indefinite nouns.

Harner argues that qualitativeness should be considered a semantic force in its own right:

This study will suggest that anarthrous predicate nouns preceding the verb may function primarily to express the nature or character of the subject, and this qualitative significance may be more important that the question whether the predicate noun itself should be regarded as definite or indefinite (IBID, p. 75).
Harner says that qualitativeness may coexist with either a definite or indefinite semantic force. Though not explicitly stated, a close reading also indicates that he believed qualitativeness may exist by itself. When considering Mark 12:35, Harner says, "the predicate noun could be interpreted as defininte, indefinite, or qualitative, depending on the particular meaning or emphasis which we understand the passage to have" (IBID, p. 79).

Harner found that 80% of anarthrous pre-verbal PNs in Mark and John are qualitative and 20% are definite. None are exclusively indefinite, which supports Colwell's conclusion as well. Harner notes that some qualitative nouns, such as HAMARTÔLOS ("sinner") in John 8:31, though best translated with the indefinite article due to English idiom, should actually be considered qualitative: