There is no “Type 2 Works Salvation” mentioned in the Bible. That is either your invented theological term or a term you borrowed that does not exist in Scripture. For one, this term is not descriptively accurate to what I actually believe the Bible teaches. So again, your term is falsely accusing me of something I don't actually believe. I don't believe in Works Salvationism (Which implies Works ALONE Salvationism without God's grace). As I told you before, I believe we are saved by both God's grace and Sanctification (Which includes works, putting away sin, and holy living).
"Type 2 works salvation" is a term that describes exactly what you teach. You believe we are saved by grace through faith AND WORKS. Period. You said it yourself - "saved by BOTH God's grace AND sanctification WHICH INCLUDES WORKS." So how many works does it take, how much sin must you put away and how much holy living must you produce and 'ADD' as a supplement to Christ's finished work of redemption in oder to help Christ save you?
Also, when the Bible talks about faith alone, it actually refutes your false belief in that salvation is through faith (belief) alone in Christ because James 2:24 says,
“You see that a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone.” (James 2:24) (BLB).
The same word
justified is used for both faith and works.
Not at all. James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is
shown to be righteous. James is discussing the
evidence of faith (
says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and
not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God. (Romans 4:2-3) Works bear out the justification that already came by faith.
In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for justified "dikaioo" #1344 is:
1. to render righteous or such he ought to be
2.
to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3. to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be
In Matthew 12:37, we read - "For by your words you will be
justified, and by your words you will be condemned." This is because our words (and our works) reveal the condition of our hearts. Words/works are evidences for, or against a man being in a state of righteousness.
God is said to have been
justified by those who were baptized by John the Baptist (Luke 7:29). This act pronounced or declared God to be righteous. It did not make him righteous. The basis or ground for the pronouncement was the fact that God IS righteous. Notice that the NIV reads,
"acknowledged that God's way was right.." The ESV reads,
"they declared God just.." This is the sense in which God was "justified." He was
shown to be righteous.
Matthew 11:19 "The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax-gatherers and sinners!' Yet wisdom is
justified/vindicated/shown to be right by her deeds."
James 2:21 - Was not Abraham our father "justified by works" when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? In James 2:21, notice closely that James does not say that Abraham's work of offering up Isaac resulted in God's accounting Abraham as righteous. The accounting of Abraham's faith as righteousness was made in Genesis 15:6,
many years before his work of offering up Isaac recorded in Genesis 22. The work of Abraham did not have some kind of intrinsic merit to account him as righteous, but it
showed or manifested the genuineness of his faith. This is the "sense" in which Abraham was "justified by works." He was
shown to be righteous.
Romans 4:2 - For if Abraham was justified
(accounted as righteous) by works,
he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham
believed God, and
it (faith, not works) was
accounted to him for righteousness.” 4 Now to him who
works, the
wages are
not counted as grace but as debt. 5 But to him who
does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom
God imputes righteousness apart from works.
If "justified by works" meant "accounted as righteous" by works in James 2:24, then we have a
contradiction here and there are no contradictions in God's word. This is why it's so critical that we properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching our conclusion on doctrine.
In James 2:14, we read of one who
says/claims he has faith but has
no works (to
evidence his claim). That is not genuine faith, but a
bare profession of faith. So when James asks, "Can
that faith save him?" he is saying nothing against genuine faith, but only against an
empty profession of faith/dead faith. *So James
does not teach that we are saved "by" works. His concern is to
show the reality of the faith professed by the individual (James 2:18) and demonstrate that the faith claimed (James 2:14) by the individual is genuine. Simple! Too simple!
Yes it is, dear sir. As I told you before, Galatians 5:24 says they that are Christ's have crucified the affections and lusts, and 1 Peter 4:1-2 talks about how he (the believer) should live the rest of his time not to the will of the flesh, but to the will of God. 2 Corinthians 7:1 says let us cleanse ourselves from all filthiness of the flesh perfecting holiness in the fear of God. You don't believe these verses in what they plainly say. You believe you must always sin this side of Heaven (Which is a justification of sin, darkness, and evil).
I believe those verses. I just don't believe your biased interpretation that equates to 'sinless perfection.' Do you claim to be sinless, without fault or defect, flawless, absolutely perfect 100% of the time? Is that how you define 'crucified the affections and lusts and perfection holiness in the fear of God?' Labeling yourself as "holier than thou" and labeling others as "justifying sin, darkness and evil" seems to be your trademark.
No contradiction. Stumbling and sinning on occasion is not sinning continuously without interruption, 24/7.
In your first paragraph you say that we are not constantly sinning 24/7.
I never said it was constant, 24/7.
Then you say in the next sentence after this paragraph you say that 1 John 1:8 is in the present tense (Suggesting that one is sinning in the present tense). This means if one is sinning in the present tense, they would be sinning 24/7.
Present tense means that we are not sinless 100% of the time in the present tense and not the we are sinning every second of every day 24/7.
CONTINUED...
