i started there too, and i guess Jesus did certainly do that for some. Of course Jews and US still actively sacrifice for sins, in fact under the law almost everything requires blood.
I don't think Jews, in the U.S. or Israel, are sacrificing animals for sins. If it is, it's not a common practice. In Israel, they don't even have an offical temple to execute the sacrificing.
They do still celebrate, or at least recognize, the Day of Atonement, or at least those who believe in God-the-Father do so.
If you meant this in a non-literal sense, in that we have a "justice" system and penal system, then I'd agree, but that's only to satisfy human "justice" and human law.
Our system actively seeks to affix blame, and sacrifices many innocents along with the guilty, whether they confess and rebound ("repent," in your lexicon) or not, yes? And from experience, these "convictions" follow one pretty much for life, whether they were committed or not, innocents "pleading" to get out of the legal maze notwithstanding, etc
Oh yeah, totally agree. It's a money-maker for sure, in the least. Human justice falls so far short of divine justice (and mercy) that it's almost uncomparable except for some spelling of words.
I think this is one of God's overall points too, with this time period - justice, true justice, cannot flow from unjust beings...only God is just.
yes, and? I almost get you here, but i will be prolly arguing that this is a diff subject, or i might edit this reply after review: ah, yes, well, imo we should recall here that the law was given to prove its inadequacy, and after all the Bible is the record of the failure of a Theocracy, yeh?
Depends on which definition of Theocracy you mean. If you mean a "government ruled by a religious authority", then yes, I agree, because that does not remove humans from the governing body. If you mean a "a form of government in which God is recognized as the supreme civil ruler of the state, and his laws are taken as the statute-book of the kingdom", with the added meaning of "in person", then no, I'd disagree, because God hasn't ruled on Earth in person.
as do we all, i spose, but the titles "Anointed One, Messiah, Son of God, King of Kings, Lord of Lords, Savior..." these were all titles that belonged to Pharaohs and Caesars! That we should also note Jesus never applied to Himself. Jesus did not write anything. Jesus was Word
(must be heard)
imo
Pharaohs and Casesars may have wanted them to mean it was them, their followers may have wanted them to mean it was them...even satan wants it to mean him. That does not make it true though. Beings can and do counterfeit what God says and does, but that doesn't make it true.
it was Caiaphas who said that it would be better that one man die for all
Eh, antichrists say a lot of things. :)
but dont get me wrong, i killed Christ "for" my sins, iow when i founded the world and sinned i killed Emmanuel, certainly. The diff in a literal v a spiritual understanding, to allow for Ezekiel, bc no son of man may die for another's sins; the soul that sins will die. right then, imo.
unfort we have mixed our metals now, and have come to believe that Jesus came for death, more abundantly, yeh? Jesus (as Apollo) "returning" to take us all to the Elysian Fields, etc. So iow now "saved" means something diff now
I guess what I'm aruging is that you're mixing up "no son of man can die for another's sins" with "no Son of Man can die for another's sins", which aren't comparable, because Jesus Christ, the Son of Man, isn't only a "son of man" human. So the "no son of man can die for another's sins" doesn't apply to Jesus Christ's death for our sins. Therefore, the statement "no son of man can die for another's sins" does not negate Jesus' sacrifice for humans' sins.