No, he didn't. He clearly said the entire city would be torn down to the ground. That didn't happen.
Jesus did say the city of Jerusalem would be completely destroyed. It actually took place in two stages, I believe, in 70 AD and in 135 AD. But it was completely defeated by the Romans in 70 AD, as Jesus indicated. Daniel had said this would happen in Dan 9.26-27, at the end of a period of 70 weeks (of years) leading to the 1st Coming of Messiah. So Jesus confirmed what was already known from reading Daniel.
Luke 19.41 As he approached Jerusalem and saw the city, he wept over it 42 and said, “If you, even you, had only known on this day what would bring you peace—but now it is hidden from your eyes. 43 The days will come upon you when your enemies will build an embankment against you and encircle you and hem you in on every side. 44 They will dash you to the ground, you and the children within your walls. They will not leave one stone on another, because you did not recognize the time of God’s coming to you.”
The above passage sounds as if all the buildings in Jerusalem would be completely flattened. But in context, Jesus was speaking primarily of the temple buildings, which was at the core of Jerusalem. We know that because the other versions confirm that. And Luke here seems to be focused on the temple, as well, because we read that in Luke 21.1.
That's not even the right temple. Are you trying to claim the temple the Roman's destroyed was rebuilt 3 days later? lol
Jesus' enemies interpreted Jesus' statements to mean that he would destroy the temple. He had mentioned that his body would be killed, but they understood him to refer to the temple of Herod.
The point is not what Jesus meant but what Jesus' enemies understood by the sense of the temple's destruction. It was not an annihilation of the entire temple complex, but only the destruction of the temple itself, which for Jesus was the equivalent of his body.
I think it important to recognize that when Jesus spoke of the destruction of the temple and the city of Jerusalem they were understood as together being decimated. The annihilation of the temple was an essential part of the defeat of the city.
So when Luke hears about Jesus railing against the city that every stone will be removed, he is speaking, in context, of the annihilation of the temple. Immediately after he referred to the removal of every stone in this desolation of the city Jesus focuses on the temple itself.
Luke 19.45 When Jesus entered the temple courts, he began to drive out those who were selling. 46 “It is written,” he said to them, “‘My house will be a house of prayer’; but you have made it ‘a den of robbers.
And so we know that Jesus' reference to the desolation of the city was exemplified specifically in the annihilation of every stone of the *temple.* This is borne out in Luke's account a little later....
Luke 21.5 Some of his disciples were remarking about how the temple was adorned with beautiful stones and with gifts dedicated to God. But Jesus said, 6 “As for what you see here, the time will come when not one stone will be left on another; every one of them will be thrown down.”
All of the versions agree with Dan 9.26-27 and focus on the desolation of Jerusalem and on the complete termination of temple worship, ie sacrifices and offerings. And so, it is not surprising that when Jesus refers to the defeat of Jerusalem he refers to the removal of every stone. We know from all of the versions that he is inferring the annihilation of the temple itself and its associated buildings.
The most convincing argument in all this is that it happened just as Jesus said, and in the very generation Jesus said it would happen. To get around this arguing about whether the retaining wall must be included in Jesus' reference to the destruction of the temple is absurd, in my estimation.