Shalom, ladies and gentlemen.
IF there is going to be a pretribulational rapture, then ALL who are believers will be slated to be raptured, because it is not UP TO US when we will be raptured. Therefore, IF there is a pretribulational rapture, ALL believers will be raptured.
HOWEVER, if there is NOT going to be a pretribulational rapture, then NO ONE who are believers will be raptured then! It's that simple. Furthermore, the same can be said for a posttribulational rapture and a pre-Wrath rapture. When GOD decides that He's sending His Son and His messengers to earth to gather His people, all of His people will be gathered WHEN GOD SAYS! It's not UP TO US!
On the other hand, if the tribulation is, as I suspect, the timeframe for all the persecution of the Jews and the believers down through the last 2,000 years or so, then the "rapture" (the harpazo or the "snatching-away" of God's people following the resurrection, as described in 1 Thes. 4 and 1 Cor. 15) cannot possibly be "pretribulational!" The "tribulation period" has ALREADY STARTED!
There are some key passages of Scripture that one should harmonize before making any assumptions. Those passages form a triangle, as they merge with one another, providing stability to one's viewpoint of end-times events. These passages are...
Revelation 19:11-21:4;
1 Corinthians 15:20-28; and
2 Peter 3:3-13.
When one has harmonized these passages, one can begin to hang other passages onto this historical framework, namely Matthew 13:24-30, 36-43; Matthew 25:31-46; Luke 1:30-33; and Luke 19:11-28, for starters.
Also, key words need to be properly understood, particularly when it comes to understanding prophecy: "salvation," "church," "resurrection," "caught up," "tribulation," "name," and "heaven." Others can be added as they are encountered and deciphered in light of these words. One MUST understand that these words are not "holy words"; that is, that they are words whose definitions are already well-known, "written in stone," and cannot be touched as God's "anointed words!" Y'know... like "touch not the LORD'S anointed?" "Salvation," for instance, simply means "rescue" or "deliverance." There's nothing austere and holy in the word itself. It's OKAY TO QUESTION how it should be used, indeed, how it WAS used in the Scriptures. It was not intended to be used as an "individual salvation," which is technically called the "justification" of an individual by God. It was used as a "national salvation" - the "rescue" or "deliverance" of the nation Isra'el in the end times! As I've said before, a good case in point is Romans 10:13, quoted from Joel 2:32. All one has to do is look up Joel 2:32 and look at the surrounding context to prove this to himself.
Romans 10:13
13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
KJV
Joel 2:28-3:2
28 And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions:
29 And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit.
30 And I will shew wonders in the heavens and in the earth, blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke.
31 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come.
32 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call.
3:1 For, behold, in those days, and in that time, when I shall bring again the captivity of Judah and Jerusalem,
2 I will also gather all nations, and will bring them down into the valley of Jehoshaphat, and will plead with them there for my people and for my heritage Israel, whom they have scattered among the nations, and parted my land.
KJV
Paul was NOT in the habit of taking verses in the Tanakh (the OT) out of their contexts and using them in a manner inconsistent with that of the original location! He used these verses to SUPPORT his statements and arguments! Therefore, IF the destination context containing the quotation SEEMS to differ from the source context containing the statement quoted, then it is most likely because WE are not using the word correctly and have a definition for the word that is inconsistent with its meaning in the source context.
What such a quotation-linked, passage pair DOES do for us is to show that the particular Greek word in the NT is the word used for translating the particular Hebrew word in that OT passage.
PLEASE be careful not to make bold, authoritative statements that cannot be supported by Scripture.