I challenge everyone to show me in the KJV Bible, where it is written the words:
"The antichrist".
You all have 24 hours to come up with the scripture verse and it's location, in the KJV Bible.
If not, I will provide the answer.
Earburner
OK, the 24 hours are up.
I am assuming that no one could find anything scripturally sound to meet by challenge. Well, grab a chair so that you don't fall down, because what I am going to share is factual, and anyone can do the same research that I did.
So here it is:
"That Wicked" has problems"- Earburner
I have seriously studied on four words in 2 Thes. 2:8-9, using both the KJV/Strong's and the Young's concordance: specifically the words "
that Wicked", and "
even him"
.
I am not looking at any other bible versions, because they are translated from the Wescott & Hort Greek text- 1881. All of such translations purposely and specifically cause the reader to falsely learn that 2 Thes. 2:8 is in the singular, as being one man.
.
In the 1611 KJV, it is very possible that a wrong word was used, being the word "
that". I f so, then in 1611, it could have been done so, in order to give support to a popular false belief at that time, of the Pope being antichrist.
.
In the Textus Receptus Greek- 1512,
[
"the" wicked]
is used and
not the words
["
that"
Wicked].
However, in the KJV of today's printing, the opposite is expressed, being ["that"
Wicked].
.
Secondly, now that we may have a wrong word
insertion of the word "
that" being used, I can understand why the word "wicked" is written with a capital
"W".
It's done so as to force the reader to see and understand the words in the singular.
.
At that time, during the Protestant Reformation period, it was commonly held by most Protestant churches, that the Pope was "of
that spirit of antichrist."
From that verse, it's an easy assumption to make, by transposing and inserting the word "
that" in the KJV, for the correct word "
the" in the Textus Receptus Greek.
.
However, if the word "
the" was used, and the word "
wicked" was set in the lower case "
w", then the entire context of 2 Thessalonians 2 would be interpreted in perfect harmony, and in the plural.
.
The word "
Wicked" is found in the Strong's
but NOT found in the Young's
concordance.
I have found that when the Young's
Concordance ommits a word, it's because
the word was purposely inserted by the
translators of The KJV Bible.
Conclusion:
The correct word to be used in 2 thes. 2:8
is "
the" and not "
that", and
therefore a capital "
W" for
"wicked" would not have been used as
being necessary.
When the capital is used, it denotes the
singular. When it's not, the plural is
relevant to the verse and the context.
.
So now, having said that, let's read
2 Thes. 2:8 in a portion of the context,
with the
acceptable changes:
[
7 ] For the mystery of iniquity doth
already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
[
8 ] And then shall
[the wicked] be
revealed, whom the Lord shall
consume with the spirit of his mouth,
and shall destroy with the brightness
of his coming:
[
9 ]
Even him [including those],
whose coming is after
the working of Satan with all power
and signs and lying wonders,
[
10 ] And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in
them that perish;
because
they received not the love of
the truth, that
they might be saved.
[
11 ] And for this cause God shall send
them strong delusion, that
they should believe a lie:
[
12 ] That
they all might be damned
who believed not the truth, but had
pleasure in unrighteousness.
.
OK, we are not done yet. I have
Dicovered that the words
"Even him" ,
are also suspect of being an insertion
by the translators.
Those words
("even him") are not found in the
Textus Receptus Greek
text also.
Nor are they found in Young's
concordance or the Strong's.
Those words are also an
insertion by
the KJV translators, being evident
to give support to the erroneous words
of"
that Wicked".
So, are we looking at a fabrication, or an
oversight in translation?
Given the fact that the "protestant
reformation" was in full swing, through
Martin Luther, I can see
how the translators might give support to
such a "just cause". Departing from the
RCC was no small matter.
Since it is "open season" for insertions,
then let it be accepted as this: "Even
them".
At least, it will blend with the plural nature
of the context, as well as the context of
the KJV New Testament scriptures,
specifically the book of 1 John 4.
So now, let's read it all, with all the
acceptable proposed
[corrections]:
2 Thessalonians 2
[
7 ] For the mystery of iniquity doth
already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
[
8 ] And then shall
[the wicked] be
revealed, whom the Lord shall
consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his
coming: [
9 ] [Even
them], whose
coming is after the working of Satan
with all power and signs and lying
wonders,
[
10 ] And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in
them that perish;
because
they received not the love of
the truth, that
they might be saved.
Question:
Are the words: "that spirit of
antichrist", of 1 John 4:3, in the
singular or the or or in the plural?
Answer:
It's in the PLURAL!