Are we going to limit God? Dear friend, I have not stepped outside the Scriptures during my discussion with you. I don't know how it could be that Jesus had two personalities, but I can see it in the Scripture.
I have already gone very in-depth into the dual personality. The dual personality can explain every Scripture, and I have already demonstrated how. The only way that Jesus could learn and yet know all things was because HE HAD A DUAL PERSONALITY. HE COULD ACT AS MAN OR HE COULD ACT AS GOD.
I fail to see how the title of EVERLASTING FATHER, or THE FATHER of ETERNITY could possibly be given to one, unless HE WAS THE FATHER OF ETERNITY! You can attempt to change the Scripture as much as you like, but it will still say the same thing. In case you're wondering, the defence of the deity of Jesus Christ does not, and never will, rest on the word 'a'. It uses the whole Scripture, and does not have to painfully drawn out because that is what God has been trying to tell us since he came to Earth in a body of flesh.
While you have continued to peg away at undermining Jesus' supreme deity, you have failed to answer these critical questions. If you can answer them, I will change what I believe, because you can't answer them.
HOW could Jesus forgive sin unless he was God (Mar_2:7)?
HOW come John, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit described Jesus as the Almighty (Rev. I:8)? He wasn't just mighty, he was the ALL MIGHTY!
HOW is it that the name of the Father IS Jesus (Joh_5:43)? If the Father's name is Jesus, doesn't it stand to reason that Jesus is God?
HOW is it that all throughout the New Testament Jesus is described as Lord (1Co_1:8)? And how is it that the exact same word is used with God (Mar_12:29)?
That Jesus does not have a "dual personality", of being both God and man at the same time, is seen that the apostle Paul wrote that "there is one God, and
one mediator between God and men, a man, Christ Jesus, "(1 Tim 2:5) This is an irrevocable statement. Paul further wrote to the Philippians, that Jesus was "although he was existing in God’s form (as a spirit son of God), gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and came to be in the
likeness of men."(Phil 2:6, 7) Paul adds: "More than that, when he found himself in fashion
as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient as far as
death, yes, death on a torture stake."(Phil 2:8)
Thus, Paul confirms that Jesus became a "man" of flesh and blood, that could be put to death. On the other hand, God cannot die, for Hababbak wrote: "Are you not from long ago, O Jehovah? O my God, my Holy One,
you do not die."(Hab 1:12) The apostle Peter told the Jews, that "this Jesus
God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses."(Acts 2:32) He further told them that "you killed the Chief Agent of life. But
God raised him up from the dead, of which fact we are witnesses."(Acts 3:15) Hence, while on the earth, Jesus was a man that could die and not a demigod.
Jesus is given the title of "Everlasting Father", because he has been granted the authority by his Father, Jehovah God, to resurrect "all those in the memorial tombs". (John 5:28) Hence, he becomes their "Everlasting Father" by giving them life again through a resurrection from the dead. Those who mold their personality to conform to God's, can then live forever and so Jesus has become their "Everlasting Father".(Eph 4:24; Ps 37:29) The title "King of Eternity" at 1 Timothy 1:17 (and Revelation 15:3), is applied only to God, not Jesus, for Paul wrote: "Now to the King of eternity, incorruptible, invisible, [the]
only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen."
(1) You ask "How could Jesus forgive sin unless he was God" ? Simply put, had you looked more closely at Mark 2, you could have of seen that Jesus said to the
Jewish religious leaders, who felt the
same way you do, by saying in their hearts: "Why is this man talking in this manner? He is blaspheming.
Who can forgive sins except one, God?” (Mark 2:7) Had Jesus been God, he would have not disagreed with them, would he ? Would Jesus have found fault with their reasoning if it was "in line with truth" ?(Mark 12:14) Because their reasoning was faulty, really wicked, Jesus now tells them: "But in order for you men to know that the
Son of man has authority ("authority" Greek
exousia, meaning "delegated influence") to forgive sins upon the earth,”—he said to the paralytic: “I say to you, Get up, pick up your cot, and go to your home.”(Mark 2:10) Thence, Jesus was granted or was delegated "authority" by his heavenly Father to forgive sins and heal people.
(2) You ask "How come John, under the inspiration of the holy spirit described Jesus as the Almighty God (Rev 1:8)? He wasn't just mighty, he was the All Mighty ?" At Revelation 1:8, Jesus is
not the one speaking. Again had you examine this more closely, Revelation 1:8 does not just say: "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty"(
King James Bible), but it says more accurately: "I am the Al´pha and the O·me´ga,” says
Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.”(
New World Translation)
The online interlinear
Scripture4all reads literally "Master the God" or "
kyrios ho theos" not just "kyrios" or "Lord". The
Emphatic Diaglott reads: "the Lord God". This text has been
tampered with, as has so many others, supplanting or removing God's name of Jehovah. Revelation 4:8 says that the "four living creatures" gives praise to God, saying: "Holy, holy, holy is
Jehovah God, the Almighty, who was and who is and who is coming.” Hence, Jehovah is Almighty, not Jesus. Jesus is called "Mighty God"(Hebrew,
’El Gib·bohr´ ), not "Almighty God" (Hebrew
’El Shad·dai´ ) at Isaiah 9:6. Had Jesus been "Almighty God", Isaiah would have written "Almighty God" or
’El Shad·dai´. Instead he wrote "Mighty God",
’El Gib·bohr´.
(3) You ask "How is that the name of the Father IS Jesus (John 5:43) If the Father's name is Jesus, doesn't it stand to reason that Jesus is God ?" First, John 5:43 does not say that "the name of the Father IS Jesus", but that Jesus said: "
I have come in the name of my Father, but you do not receive me; if someone else arrived in his own name, you would receive that one."(
New World Translation) What does it mean to come in someone's name ? What does it mean when the police say: "Stop in the name of the law " ? Are the police named "law" or are they telling the criminal to stop by "authority" of the law ? When the tribe of Levi was told that "he must also minister in the
name of Jehovah his God the same as all his brothers, the Levites, who are standing there before Jehovah", what was meant ?
Simply that this tribe was given authority by Jehovah God to minister in behalf of the nation of Israel, representing God before the nation. Hence, Jesus came to the earth as
God's representative, just as the tribe of Levi represented God for the Israelites. That is why Jesus said to the Jews: "You both know me and know where I am from. Also,
I have not come of my own initiative, but he that sent me is real, and you do not know him. I know him, because
I am a representative from him, and that One sent me forth.”("representative", Greek
apostello, meaning "to send out on a mission", John 7:28, 29)
(4) You ask "How is it that all throughout the New Testament Jesus is described as Lord (1 Cor 1:8) ? And how is it that the exact same word is used with God (Mark 12:29) ?" The word "Lord" literally means "sir", "owner" or "master" and can be applied to just about anyone, for Abraham was called "Lord" by Sarah.(Gen 18:12) The sons of Heth called Abraham "Lord".(Gen 23:6, 11) Rebekah called Abraham's servant, Eliezer, "lord".(Gen 24:18) And Rachael called her father "lord".(Gen 31:35)
The term "lord" is used in the Bible almost 1200 times and is often used as an expression of humility, as in the case of Hannah when before high priest Eli (1 Sam 1:15, 26), or of Abigail when before David.(1 Sam 25:24) Hence, the word "lord" is used throughout the Bible for a whole host of different ones, not just of God. It need be noted that at Mark 12:29, the word "lord" is not found in the original Greek manuscript, but rather reads: "Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah", for Jesus was quoting from Deuteronomy 6:4.