Who is the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob?

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WalterandDebbie

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Continued from: W.F. Dankenbring

Zechariah's Plain Proof! Perhaps one of the most striking proofs that Christ is to be identified with YHVH of the Old Testament is found in comparing Zechariah's prophecy with a prophecy found in the book of Acts. In Zechariah 14 we read: "A day of the LORD is coming when your plunder will be divided among you. I will gather all nations to Jerusalem to fight against it; the city will be captured, the houses ransacked, and the women raped. . . . Then the LORD will go out and fight against those nations as he fights in the day of battle. On that day his feet will stand on the Mount of Olives, east of Jerusalem, and the Mount of Olives will be split in two . . ." (Zech.14:1-4). In Acts, chapter 1, we read that the disciples watched as Jesus ascended to heaven. After Jesus gave them final instructions, "he was taken up before their very eyes, and a cloud hid him from their sight. They were looking intently up into the sky as he was going, when suddenly two men dressed in white stood before them. 'Men of Galilee,' they said, 'why do you stand here looking up into the sky? This same Jesus, who has been taken from you into heaven, will come back in the same way you have seen him go into heaven.' Then they returned to Jerusalem from the hill called the 55 Mount of Olives, a Sabbath day's walk from the city" (Acts 1:9-12).

Jesus arose to heaven from the Mount of Olives. He will return to the Mount of Olives, when He comes down from heaven, to fight against His enemies and take over His Kingdom. So will the LORD YHVH, according to the prophecy of Zechariah! Clearly Christ and the YHVH must be One and the same! The "I AM" According to Jesus Did Jesus confirm the truth of this identification in His own words? Jesus said to His disciples, "You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world" (John 8:23). He added, "If you do not believe that I am the one I claim to be, you will indeed die in your sins" (verse 24). In verse 58 of this same chapter, Jesus makes it perfectly plain: "'I tell you the truth,' Jesus answered, 'before Abraham was, I am!' At this they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds" (John 8:58-59). Also, in Jesus' encounter with those who came to take Him prisoner, He asked them, "Whom seek ye? They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am. . . . Then asked he them again, Whom seek ye? And they answered, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus answered them, I have told you that I AM: if therefore ye seek me, let these go their way: That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou gavest me have I lost none" (John 18:4-9). Although the King James Version has "I am he, " notice that the "he" is in italics, meaning it was supplied by the translators.

In the original Greek, Jesus simply replied to them, "I AM." This name, "I AM," is the very name, of course, by which YHVH revealed Himself to Moses at the burning bush! "Moses said to God, 'Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, "The God of your fathers has sent me to you," and they ask me, "What is his name?" Then what shall I tell them?' God said to Moses, 'I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you' " (Exodus 3:13-14). Jesus plainly, then, on suitable occasions, referred to Himself as the "I AM," the YHVH of the Old Testament! He was the One who inter-acted with the patriarchs, and who sat down to dinner with Abraham and Sarah (Gen.18:1-15) and who spoke with Abraham about the future of Sodom and Gomorrah (verses 22-33). He is the One who wrestled with Jacob until his thigh was out of joint 24-29). Jacob called the name of that place Peniel, saying, "It is because I saw God face to face, and yet my life has been spared" (Gen.32:30). All of these Scriptures point in the clear direction of identifying the YHVH of the Old Testament as the same person and being as Jesus Christ of the New Testament! Only rarely does the term YHVH in the Old Testament refer to the Father, whose identity remained obscured and hidden from view. One such example is Psalm 2:7 where we read: "I will proclaim the decree of the LORD: He said to me, 'You are my 56 Son; today I have become your Father." Another such Scripture is Psalm 110:1, where we read: "The LORD says to my Lord: 'Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.' The LORD will extend your mighty scepter from Zion; you will rule in the midst of your enemies. . . . The LORD has sworn and will not change his mind: 'You are a priest forever, in the order of Melchizedek'" (Psalm 110:1-4). These Scriptures do mention the Father also as YHVH, but the Jews did not understand them (Matt.22:41-45).

Love, Walter And Debbie
 

WalterandDebbie

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Conclusion From: William F. Dankenbring Was Jesus Christ the “LORD” of the Old Testament?

The Monotheism of Israel In the vast majority of cases, the YHVH of the Old Testament, of Israel, was not the Father, but the pre-existent One known as the Logos (John 1:1-3) who became Jesus Christ, the Messiah. Jesus was the YHVH before His human birth. Does this concept destroy or do violence to the Monotheism of Israel? Does it fly in the face of the commandment, "I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery. You shall have NO OTHER GODS before me"? (Exodus 20:1-2). In Deuteronomy 6:5 we read: "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is ONE. Love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength" (Deut.6:4-5). Christ said He and the Father are One. They are perfect in UNITY. Yet they are two separate individual beings. This wonderful truth does not make the Monotheism of Israel any less true, for the Father was unknown and beyond the scope of the knowledge of the children of Israel, only vaguely alluded to in a few Scriptures. The instances where the New Testament writers equate YHVH with the Father is easily explained -- the YHVH who became Christ always acted as an agent of the Supreme God beyond Him, as the Spokesman of the Father -- even though the Father was "invisible" and had not yet been revealed. The New Testament writers wrote from their own now enlightened understanding that God the Father, through YHVH-Christ, had actualy been behind the scenes all along and running the show through Him. Revelation is progressive. God revealed more about Himself in Moses' time than He had in Abraham's time. In Christ's time, much more revelation was added to the picture.

Even more clarification was added when John was inspired to write the book of Revelation, around 90 A.D. And God is still revealing more about His Word and His prophecies in this End-time generation, just as Daniel the prophet foretold (Daniel 12:9). When YHVH was Israel's Supreme Deity, so far as they were given knowledge, the Father was unknown in those times (John 1:18; 14:26). Therefore, the Israelites worshiped directly only the YHVH revealed to them -- the One who became Christ, and He was the revealed Supreme Deity. But when Yahveh became a human being, and became humanly incarnated as the Christ, He delivered up the title "God" and "YHVH" to God the Father, whom He progressively began to reveal. YHVH became human and 57 revealed to humanity the previously unknown Father as God. Thus Israel's LORD YHVH is identified with the One who became the Messiah, Jesus Christ, and not with the Father, in the vast majority of Old Testament Scriptures. Jesus addressed God as abba, or "Father," and taught His disciples to do so also (Luke 11:2). The word abba, however, doesn't just mean "Father." It is the very intimate, informal, familiar form of address reserved for members of the intimate family circle. It could be translated "Dad" or "Papa." Jesus Himself said to the women who saw Him after His resurrection, "Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet returned to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, 'I am returning to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God" (John 20:17).

New Testament Terminology Interestingly, now that Jesus has become the human Savior, and Redeemer, the tendency in the New Testament, in order to distinguish between Him and the Father, is to generally speak of the Father as "God" and Christ as the "Lord" and "Messiah." Paul writes, ". . . yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live" (I Cor.8:6). In Galatians 1:1 Paul speaks of "Jesus Christ and God the Father." And to the Ephesians he wrote of "one Lord, one faith, one baptism; one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all" (Eph.4:4-6). To the Philippians, Paul wrote, "Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ" (Phil.1:2). Also, to the Thessalonians, Paul addressed his letter, "To the church of the Thessalonians in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ" (I Thess.1:1). This is standard, normal New Testament usage. In New Testament, now that the Father has been revealed, the name of "God" is generally used in application to Him, and Christ is referred to as our "Savior," "Lord," coming "King," and elder "Brother." Does this prove that Jesus is not "God," as some would have us believe? Not at all. Now that the Father has been REVEALED, who is indeed the Supreme Head of the God Family, we should ALL look upon Him as our GOD! Jesus said very clearly that we should address our prayers to the Father, even as Christ Himself did. Jesus said, "This, then, is how you should pray: 'OUR FATHER in heaven . . .' " (Matt.6:9).

Our prayers are to be directed to the Father, in the name of Christ -- not directed to Christ Himself! Christ Himself set us this example. He prayed, "Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours, be done" (Luke 22:42). He addressed His prayers to the Father, setting us an example to follow (I Pet.2:21; I John 2:6). Obviously, the Father is greater than Christ, even though both are clearly "God" and the name YHVH applies to both of them. When the plan of God is finished, "Then the end will come, when he [Christ] hands over the kingdom to God the Father" (I Cor.15:24). God the Father will put everything in subjection to the rule of Christ, with, of course, 58 the exception of Himself! As Paul explained, "Now when it says that 'everything' has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. When he has done this, then the Son will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all" (I Cor.15:27-28). It seems obvious to me, as it did to the writers of the New Testament, that now that God the Father has been revealed, as the Supreme God and Head of the Family of God, that we should address Him as "God" and as our "Father" both, even as Jesus Christ, our Elder Brother, did. In His final prayer for His disciples and the church, He prayed, "Father, the time has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you. For you granted him authority over all people that he might give eternal life to all those you have given him. Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. I have brought you glory on earth by completing the work you gave me to do.

And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began" (John 17:1-5). Notice! In this remarkable statement, Jesus refers to the Father as the "only true God." Yet He also clearly alludes to the "glory" which He possessed WITH THE FATHER before the world began. The only way to reconcile all these Scriptures, without doing violence to any of them, is to realize that even though Jesus Christ was the Logos, a pre-existent Being and Member of the Godhead, and is the "Son of God," nowhere does the Scripture refer to Him as a member of some divine "Trinity" or call Him "God the Son." Jesus is plainly under the authority of the Father -- they are NOT "co-equal," as Trinitarian doctrine argues. Christ is subject to the Father; He is less than the Father; the Father is greater than He is (John 14:28). Therefore, although Jesus is also God, He is lesser in authority than the Father, and we, even though we are to become "Gods" in the Family of God, are still to always address our worship and prayers to the Father, to whom Christ has transferred the main thrust of our worship. Although we still worship Christ, for He is also God, the emphasis of our worship is directed to the Father, who is all in all. Unfortunately, the truth of God has been buried for centuries under an avalanche of pagan superstition, heretical "orthodoxy," and incorrect terminology inherited from mainstream "Christian" orthodoxy. Very few, today, understand that Jesus Christ was the Logos and YHVH of the Old Testament -- very few Churches understand it! Thank God He has given us His precious truth -- the truth about our Savior, Redeemer, and Messiah -- the Lord Jesus Christ!

Love, Walter And Debbie
 

Truthnightmare

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Conclusion From: William F. Dankenbring Was Jesus Christ the “LORD” of the Old Testament?

The Monotheism of Israel In the vast majority of cases, the YHVH of the Old Testament, of Israel, was not the Father, but the pre-existent One known as the Logos (John 1:1-3) who became Jesus Christ, the Messiah. Jesus was the YHVH before His human birth. Does this concept destroy or do violence to the Monotheism of Israel? Does it fly in the face of the commandment, "I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery. You shall have NO OTHER GODS before me"? (Exodus 20:1-2). In Deuteronomy 6:5 we read: "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is ONE. Love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength" (Deut.6:4-5). Christ said He and the Father are One. They are perfect in UNITY. Yet they are two separate individual beings. This wonderful truth does not make the Monotheism of Israel any less true, for the Father was unknown and beyond the scope of the knowledge of the children of Israel, only vaguely alluded to in a few Scriptures. The instances where the New Testament writers equate YHVH with the Father is easily explained -- the YHVH who became Christ always acted as an agent of the Supreme God beyond Him, as the Spokesman of the Father -- even though the Father was "invisible" and had not yet been revealed. The New Testament writers wrote from their own now enlightened understanding that God the Father, through YHVH-Christ, had actualy been behind the scenes all along and running the show through Him. Revelation is progressive. God revealed more about Himself in Moses' time than He had in Abraham's time. In Christ's time, much more revelation was added to the picture.

Even more clarification was added when John was inspired to write the book of Revelation, around 90 A.D. And God is still revealing more about His Word and His prophecies in this End-time generation, just as Daniel the prophet foretold (Daniel 12:9). When YHVH was Israel's Supreme Deity, so far as they were given knowledge, the Father was unknown in those times (John 1:18; 14:26). Therefore, the Israelites worshiped directly only the YHVH revealed to them -- the One who became Christ, and He was the revealed Supreme Deity. But when Yahveh became a human being, and became humanly incarnated as the Christ, He delivered up the title "God" and "YHVH" to God the Father, whom He progressively began to reveal. YHVH became human and 57 revealed to humanity the previously unknown Father as God. Thus Israel's LORD YHVH is identified with the One who became the Messiah, Jesus Christ, and not with the Father, in the vast majority of Old Testament Scriptures. Jesus addressed God as abba, or "Father," and taught His disciples to do so also (Luke 11:2). The word abba, however, doesn't just mean "Father." It is the very intimate, informal, familiar form of address reserved for members of the intimate family circle. It could be translated "Dad" or "Papa." Jesus Himself said to the women who saw Him after His resurrection, "Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet returned to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, 'I am returning to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God" (John 20:17).

New Testament Terminology Interestingly, now that Jesus has become the human Savior, and Redeemer, the tendency in the New Testament, in order to distinguish between Him and the Father, is to generally speak of the Father as "God" and Christ as the "Lord" and "Messiah." Paul writes, ". . . yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live" (I Cor.8:6). In Galatians 1:1 Paul speaks of "Jesus Christ and God the Father." And to the Ephesians he wrote of "one Lord, one faith, one baptism; one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all" (Eph.4:4-6). To the Philippians, Paul wrote, "Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ" (Phil.1:2). Also, to the Thessalonians, Paul addressed his letter, "To the church of the Thessalonians in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ" (I Thess.1:1). This is standard, normal New Testament usage. In New Testament, now that the Father has been revealed, the name of "God" is generally used in application to Him, and Christ is referred to as our "Savior," "Lord," coming "King," and elder "Brother." Does this prove that Jesus is not "God," as some would have us believe? Not at all. Now that the Father has been REVEALED, who is indeed the Supreme Head of the God Family, we should ALL look upon Him as our GOD! Jesus said very clearly that we should address our prayers to the Father, even as Christ Himself did. Jesus said, "This, then, is how you should pray: 'OUR FATHER in heaven . . .' " (Matt.6:9).

Our prayers are to be directed to the Father, in the name of Christ -- not directed to Christ Himself! Christ Himself set us this example. He prayed, "Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours, be done" (Luke 22:42). He addressed His prayers to the Father, setting us an example to follow (I Pet.2:21; I John 2:6). Obviously, the Father is greater than Christ, even though both are clearly "God" and the name YHVH applies to both of them. When the plan of God is finished, "Then the end will come, when he [Christ] hands over the kingdom to God the Father" (I Cor.15:24). God the Father will put everything in subjection to the rule of Christ, with, of course, 58 the exception of Himself! As Paul explained, "Now when it says that 'everything' has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. When he has done this, then the Son will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all" (I Cor.15:27-28). It seems obvious to me, as it did to the writers of the New Testament, that now that God the Father has been revealed, as the Supreme God and Head of the Family of God, that we should address Him as "God" and as our "Father" both, even as Jesus Christ, our Elder Brother, did. In His final prayer for His disciples and the church, He prayed, "Father, the time has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you. For you granted him authority over all people that he might give eternal life to all those you have given him. Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. I have brought you glory on earth by completing the work you gave me to do.

And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began" (John 17:1-5). Notice! In this remarkable statement, Jesus refers to the Father as the "only true God." Yet He also clearly alludes to the "glory" which He possessed WITH THE FATHER before the world began. The only way to reconcile all these Scriptures, without doing violence to any of them, is to realize that even though Jesus Christ was the Logos, a pre-existent Being and Member of the Godhead, and is the "Son of God," nowhere does the Scripture refer to Him as a member of some divine "Trinity" or call Him "God the Son." Jesus is plainly under the authority of the Father -- they are NOT "co-equal," as Trinitarian doctrine argues. Christ is subject to the Father; He is less than the Father; the Father is greater than He is (John 14:28). Therefore, although Jesus is also God, He is lesser in authority than the Father, and we, even though we are to become "Gods" in the Family of God, are still to always address our worship and prayers to the Father, to whom Christ has transferred the main thrust of our worship. Although we still worship Christ, for He is also God, the emphasis of our worship is directed to the Father, who is all in all. Unfortunately, the truth of God has been buried for centuries under an avalanche of pagan superstition, heretical "orthodoxy," and incorrect terminology inherited from mainstream "Christian" orthodoxy. Very few, today, understand that Jesus Christ was the Logos and YHVH of the Old Testament -- very few Churches understand it! Thank God He has given us His precious truth -- the truth about our Savior, Redeemer, and Messiah -- the Lord Jesus Christ!

Love, Walter And Debbie
When Jesus was in the flesh He was limited, however this position was only prevalent then.
 

Truthnightmare

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32 But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.
33 Take ye heed, watch and pray: for ye know not when the time is. KJV​
The question is: if Jesus was God in the flesh, and the Father knows the time but the Son doesn't, then how could the Son be the same as the Father? Right, isn't that your question?

The Son isn't the same as the Father, as verse 32 above exemplifies. Both both are God. The Son is born of flesh, the Father is Spirit:

John 4:24
24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth. KJV​
Let me explain, and please bear with me, this is difficult to put into words that don't seemingly contradict (though they do not at all contradict).

God came down to Earth, was clothed with flesh (in Mary's womb), and was and is known to us as Jesus Christ.

1 Timothy 3:16
16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: Godwas manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. KJV​
God Himself, the Father, is in Heaven―He is God. Jesus was man, flesh. Jesus was God, made a little lower than the angels (so-that/because-that He could die):

Hebrews 2:9
9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man. KJV​
What that means is that Jesus was born of flesh, which is lower than an angel. Angels are greater than flesh men, as the Scripture declares:

2 Peter 2:11
11 Whereas angels, which are greater in power and might, bring not railing accusation against them before the Lord. KJV​
Angels also cannot die (except if God casts them into the Lake of Fire). So, being that Jesus was flesh, liable to die, and angels were not flesh and could not die―the angels were higher than Jesus. In other words, when God is in the flesh, He is Jesus, when God is in Heaven He is God. God in Heaven is greater than the angels, for He created them; but when God is in the flesh, as He was when He was Jesus Christ, the angels are higher than Him. Please understand that this does not mean that the angels would dare treat God (Jesus) less; for, even the evil angels (evil spirits) dared not even blaspheme Jesus Christ, though the Jews did (Mt 10:25). Nor did the evil angels (evil spirits) dare try to kill Jesus, as the Jews did (Jn 8:37, etc. etc. etc.)
 

WalterandDebbie

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The question is: if Jesus was God in the flesh, and the Father knows the time but the Son doesn't, then how could the Son be the same as the Father? Right, isn't that your question?

The Son isn't the same as the Father, as verse 32 above exemplifies. Both both are God. The Son is born of flesh, the Father is Spirit:


Let me explain, and please bear with me, this is difficult to put into words that don't seemingly contradict (though they do not at all contradict).

God came down to Earth, was clothed with flesh (in Mary's womb), and was and is known to us as Jesus Christ.


God Himself, the Father, is in Heaven―He is God. Jesus was man, flesh. Jesus was God, made a little lower than the angels (so-that/because-that He could die):


What that means is that Jesus was born of flesh, which is lower than an angel. Angels are greater than flesh men, as the Scripture declares:


Angels also cannot die (except if God casts them into the Lake of Fire). So, being that Jesus was flesh, liable to die, and angels were not flesh and could not die―the angels were higher than Jesus. In other words, when God is in the flesh, He is Jesus, when God is in Heaven He is God. God in Heaven is greater than the angels, for He created them; but when God is in the flesh, as He was when He was Jesus Christ, the angels are higher than Him. Please understand that this does not mean that the angels would dare treat God (Jesus) less; for, even the evil angels (evil spirits) dared not even blaspheme Jesus Christ, though the Jews did (Mt 10:25). Nor did the evil angels (evil spirits) dare try to kill Jesus, as the Jews did (Jn 8:37, etc. etc. etc.)
Yes, Truthnightmare, We understand what you are saying, especially about when Jesus said that God is a spirit., and Paul said, that God was in Christ reconciling the world unto Himself.

John 1:1

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Read full chapter
 
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Aunty Jane

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Jesus called Himself God.
Not once. Please use a scriptural reference when making such a statement. Jesus did not once say that he was “God” or his Father’s equal. There is only one God of Israel, who has never changed.....the Jews knew him as YHWH, as the Jewish Shema states....in Deut 6:4....(Jewish

“The Lord” is יְהֹוָ֥ה.....not Jesus....YHWH is “one”...not “three”.

Hear, O Israel: The Lord is our God; the Lord is one. דשְׁמַ֖ע יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל יְהֹוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ יְהֹוָ֥ה | אֶחָֽד
 

Big Boy Johnson

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The tetragrammaton is the personal name of the God of Israel; the messiah’s God.


But... there's only ONE Name that really matters... Jesus Who is THE Christ!

Acts 4:12
Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.

Philippians 2:10
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
 

Big Boy Johnson

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I asked you why you obey Jesus of Nazareth?
Because salvation an ONLY be obtained thru Him.thumbsup5.gif


Yes… But the Lord has many names, I address Him in many ways depending on circumstance, but that’s just me.

Hopefully nobody believes this causes the Father to be impressed by this as in earning some special favor.
 

Aunty Jane

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But... there's only ONE Name that really matters... Jesus Who is THE Christ!

Acts 4:12
Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
Jesus is an integral part of God’s purpose in granting salvation to those who accept him as Messiah, request God’s forgiveness on the basis of his sacrifice, and repent of their sins.
But the apostles knew who was their “God” and who was their “Lord”......
Speaking collectively, on behalf of all the apostles, Paul said....
1 Cor 8:5-6....
“For even though there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God, the Father, from whom all things are and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are and we through him.

Salvation comes “from” God (YHWH) “through” Jesus....God’s mediator.….
”For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus“.(1 Tim 2:5-6)
If Jesus is God how can he be a mediator “between God and men”? We would need a mediator between ourselves and Jesus….

Acts 2:21...and Romans 10:13 both say...
“....that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”
Who is being spoken about here...which “Lord” is this?
He is quoting Joel 2:32....
“....that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call.

In the Hebrew, the Tetragrammaton appears three times in this verse...
הוְהָיָ֗ה כֹּ֧ל אֲשֶׁר־יִקְרָ֛א בְּשֵׁ֥ם יְהֹוָ֖ה יִמָּלֵ֑ט כִּ֠י בְּהַר־צִיּ֨וֹן וּבִירֽוּשָׁלִַ֜ם תִּֽהְיֶ֣ה פְלֵיטָ֗ה כַּֽאֲשֶׁר֙ אָמַ֣ר יְהֹוָ֔ה וּבַ֨שְּׂרִידִ֔ים אֲשֶׁ֥ר יְהֹוָ֖ה קֹרֵֽא:

So calling on the right name, of the right “Lord”, for the right reason, is important since these are two separate entities….and this is a salvation issue.

Philippians 2:10
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
That is only a small portion of the quote.....what about the rest?
Phil 2:9-11 says in full.....
“For this very reason, God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every name, 10 so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend—of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground— 11 and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.”

We must “openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord”….”TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER”.
Bending the knee is an act of respect to royalty and Jesus is “the Prince of Peace”….the appointed King of God’s Kingdom...but all glory goes to his God and Father.
 
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Matthias

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But... there's only ONE Name that really matters... Jesus Who is THE Christ!

Acts 4:12
Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.

Philippians 2:10
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;

“Blessed be the God and Father of our lord Jesus Christ.”

(2 Corinthians 1:3)

Yahweh and Jesus both matter. No Yahweh, no Jesus.
 

WalterandDebbie

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Saturday 1-13-24 7th. Day Of The Weekly Cycle, Shevat 1 5784, 24th. Winter Day


Love, Walter And Debbie
 
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Big Boy Johnson

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No one had the ear of God before the name of Jesus was known?

That was then.... this is now.

You aren't living back under the Old Covenant therefore you cannot get God's ear the way they did back then. You can sacrifice all the animals you want for your sins now, and it's a waste of time as this does nothing to cover your sin. Do your best to keep the Law of Moses... meaningless now.

Now, there is a new house, the Body of Jesus Christ! Under the New Covenant that the Lord said would come forth, we see Jesus Christ as the High Priest. The old covenant with it’s laws and regulations have been taken away because thru Jesus Christ a new and better covenant has come in to place.

Hebrews 10:9
Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.


And with the changing of the priesthood, God’s Word tells us there is also a change of the law.

Hebrews 7:12
For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.


Now, we live under the Law of Christ since the Law of Moses is no more.

Galatians 3:11
But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.
 
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Matthias

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That was then.... this is now.

You aren't living back under the Old Covenant therefore you cannot get God's ear the way they did back then. You can sacrifice all the animals you want for your sins now, and it's a waste of time as this does nothing to cover your sin. Do your best to keep the Law of Moses... meaningless now.

Now, there is a new house, the Body of Jesus Christ! Under the New Covenant that the Lord said would come forth, we see Jesus Christ as the High Priest. The old covenant with it’s laws and regulations have been taken away because thru Jesus Christ a new and better covenant has come in to place.

Hebrews 10:9
Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.


And with the changing of the priesthood, God’s Word tells us there is also a change of the law.

Hebrews 7:12
For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.


Now, we live under the Law of Christ since the Law of Moses is no more.

Galatians 3:11
But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.

True. The point was about “then”.

People had God’s ear “then” without having ever heard or known the prophesied Messiah’s name.

The way to Yahweh runs through Jesus.