Why are there four Gospel accounts in the New Testament?

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RedFan

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Because his writings were not inspired.

The gospel that the Holy Spirit wrote through him was.

I never said his gospel wasn't inspired. But you and I mean different things by "inspired." To me, it means the writings contain theological truth, not necessarily historical accuracy.

Vern S. Poythress, in an effort to harmonize of Matt. 8:5-13 and Luke 7:2-10, states “We have the accounts in Mathew and Luke, which are inspired by God. They are what God says and are therefore trustworthy. That is the conviction we have and the basis on which we work.” Poythress, Inerrancy and the Gospels: A God-Centered Approach to the Challenges of Harmonization (Crossway 2012) at 21. I take it that you share his view. I don't. This approach seems to me to be reasoning the matter backwards. Inerrancy should be a conclusion from the evidence, not an axiom with which to assess the evidence. My problem with Scriptural inerrancy is not so much that it presumes the thing to be proven as that it presumes that no proof is needed!

Ask an inerrantist whether Jesus sent his apostles out with sandals and staff (Mark 6:8-9) or without them (Matt. 10:10), and the answer will come back “The gospels must have been describing two different missions.” Ask where the “must have” comes from, and the answer ultimately comes back, in words or substance, that the consistency of Scripture is a given.

Even for the inerrantist, it is not crucial to know whether the disciples were sent out with or without sandals for a particular mission. They don’t care which instruction was given, any more than they care whether the law requires driving on the left or on the right side of the road. But they care deeply that only one instruction was given, for otherwise their world would be as chaotic as a world in which the law allowed driving on both sides of the road. If the texts of two gospels give two different answers to any question―even to the issue of apostolic footwear―they care deeply that one of them be explained away.

It’s a slippery slope thing with them. It’s a Luke 16:10 thing. Most of us would not be scandalized in the least by one of two gospel authors getting a theologically-irrelevant detail wrong. But the inerrantist demands literal historical truth on every detail, however minor, because for him, there aren’t two gospel authors. There is only one, and He cannot err.

I do not see the point in downplaying the human element like this. I expect theological truth from my Bible, not factual accuracy on minute historical details. And I am not scandalized by inaccuracies as to the latter. The better approach, in my opinion, is to focus on the inerrancy of the message of a given passage, rather than of the extraneous details with which the passage is adorned.
 
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Michiah-Imla

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Ask an inerrantist whether Jesus sent his apostles out with sandals and staff (Mark 6:8-9) or without them (Matt. 10:10)

and the answer will come back “The gospels must have been describing two different missions.”

I like this explanation from my e-sword app much better:

“Matthew says that they were to take "neither two coats, neither shoes, nor yet staves;" but this precept plainly means, "Go just as you are; take no other coat, shoes, or staff than what you already have."

But these two accounts never entered my mind to analyze. I’m too focused on the weightier matters in scripture regarding eternal life and the spiritual things contained therein.
 

RedFan

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I like this explanation from my e-sword app much better:

“Matthew says that they were to take "neither two coats, neither shoes, nor yet staves;" but this precept plainly means, "Go just as you are; take no other coat, shoes, or staff than what you already have."

But these two accounts never entered my mind to analyze. I’m too focused on the weightier matters in scripture regarding eternal life and the spiritual things contained therein.

So am I. That's the proper focus for a Christian. Do we really care whether the centurion who wanted Jesus to heal his servant approached Jesus in person (Matthew 8:5-13) or sent an intermediary (Luke 7:2-10)? Do we really care whether “Saul took his own sword and fell upon it” (1 Samuel 31:4) or whether “the Philistines killed Saul on Gilboa” (2 Samuel 21:12)? Do we really care whether Jesse had seven sons (1 Chronicles 2:13-15) or eight (1 Samuel 16:10-11)? Do we really care whether “Ahaziah was twenty-two years old when he began to reign” (2 Kings 8:26) or whether “Ahaziah was forty-two years old when he began to reign” (2 Chronicles 22:2)? Why couldn’t two different writers just disagree on these immaterial details?
 

RedFan

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@RedFan

Wow.

You really have all those references documented, huh?

Ye. And many more. But only because they give context to the human element.

You and I went over one of these contradictions in another thread a few days ago. Mark 2:26 quotes Jesus as saying that David entered the house of God and ate the altar bread “when Abiathar was high priest.” 1 Samuel21:1-6 is explicit that Ahimelech, not his son Abiathar, was high priest at the time. In my view, it doesn’t matter whether Jesus got this detail wrong or Mark got it wrong, simply because it doesn’t matter at all―to the message of the gospel story. The point being made by Jesus (or Mark) is theologically sound even if not historically accurate, originally or in the retelling.

And it's the same with Matthew 27:9. Maybe Matthew was just having a senior moment, thought he knew which OT writing contained the story, and got it wrong. Or maybe he was unsure, and decided to take a wild-ass guess because he was too lazy to hoof it down to the Temple and check the scrolls. Regardless, I just cannot conclude that God put those words in his pen. There is simply no theological reason to do so. The historical accuracy of each and every detail related in Scripture is often irrelevant to the message. Nothing in that message is diminished if the authors (or their sources) embellished the extraneous details, or got them wrong.
 
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Michiah-Imla

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In my view, it doesn’t matter whether Jesus got this detail wrong or Mark got it wrong, simply because it doesn’t matter at all―to the message of the gospel story.

The point being made by Jesus (or Mark) is theologically sound even if not historically accurate, originally or in the retelling.

That’s an interesting take.

Sorry about coming hard at you.

But my defense mechanism kicked in when it seemed you were questioning the scriptures for nefarious purposes.
 

RedFan

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That’s an interesting take.

Sorry about coming hard at you.

But my defense mechanism kicked in when it seemed you were questioning the scriptures for nefarious purposes.

I have no nefarious purpose. Understanding the gospel is my purpose. And in 67 years on the planet, I'm still trying. But I have had to conclude that the accuracy of every tiny detail makes no difference to God's message conveyed through the gospel writers.

I will give you one more example, and then I need to go to bed. Recall the gospel story about the enterprising friends of a paralytic who were so desperate to have Jesus heal him that they circumvented the crowds blocking access to the house, scrambling up onto the roof, making a hole in it and lowering him down on his bed. Mark’s account of this story, Mark 2:1-12, places it in Capernaum in Galilee – and does not tell us what the roof was made of, only that they removed the roof above him; and after having dug through it, they let down the mat on which the paralytic lay. Luke agrees that the miracle took place in Galilee but he is more descriptive of the roofing material; he says they lowered him through the tiles, Luke 5:19. Yes, the stories are consistent. But here's the rub: archeological digs in Capernaum and the surrounding regions in Galilee have uncovered many ruins and remains of houses from the time of Christ, yet have found no tile. None. Not a scrap. There is not the slightest evidence that any Galilean roofs were made of tile. I ask, could Luke (who was not from the region, and for all we know never visited it) have made this detail up? After all, whether the roof was tile or mud-thatch would add nothing to the theological significance of the miracle; shouldn’t that significance be the “truth” Luke was trying to impart here? I think so.
 
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Berserk

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One of the first truths you learn at any seminary, evangelical or otherwise, is that Mark is the source for both Matthew and Luke. Indeed, Matthrew copies 95% of Mark and Luke 55%. This is easily demonstrated by Throckmorton's "Gospel Parallels, a book that places Matthew, Mark, and Luke, in parallel columns. John is unique in that it uses different sources than the 3 Synoptic Gospels. Luke 1:1-4 implies that several other earlier Gospels had been written, but these have been lost to history. Intriguingly, an Aramaic Gospel of John (different than our Greek John) was preserved in the 4th century library at Caesarea, but that Gospel has unfortuntely also been lost. You can't distinguish Jesus' intentions from the Evangelists' intentions without studying how and why Matthew and Luke make many signigicant changes to Mark in their own Gospels.
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Jim B

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I find that quite disrespectful, M-I. All I did was ask how you explain Matthew's mistake given your "it didn’t come from their minds" comment. And for that, you insult me. Wouldn't it be better --and more in keeping with the nature of this forum -- just to engage the question and provide an answer?

That is not M-I's style.
 
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Jim B

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Your insinuation of the gospels being from the minds of men is insulting sir!

The atheists do this as well.

Why do you take up their sword against the scriptures?

Why?

Who do you think wrote the gospels? Horses? Chickens?

Why do you take up their sword against the scriptures?
 

Jim B

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Your continued limiting of God and His inspired word through human reasoning doesn’t let you see the truth of spiritual revelation.

You erroneously put a limit on when God can reveal things to his prophets.

God said it was spoken by Jeremiah.

So that is what happened!

Zechariah was the prophet that God chose to write the prophecy in question and Jeremiah was the prophet that God chose to speak the prophecy. And that, my friend, could only have been known by an inspired writer with prophecy revealed to him!

An ordinary man would have referenced the book of Zechariah since that would be the only way an uninspired writer would know about the prophecy.

You erroneously put a limit on God!
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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Why four Gospels and four Gospel writers?
Without a result no formula means a thing.
So, Why four Gospels and four Gospel writers?
So that when they are combined, like hydrogen and water when combined, will result in the Flowing Water of Life.

Jesus right at the end of his ministry in suffering, concluded, There are twelve hours of darkness repeated in twelve hours of daylight resulting in "twelve hours in the day". He said of this hour: "MY HOUR IS COME". He called "this hour,", "This Day". And He declared of "This That Day": "BEING IN THE HEART OF THE EARTH"--which is "the Heart" of the Good News: of the Power of God to save--the Gospel of Jesus Christ "in three days and three nights" each of 12 hours each.
WHICH IS TO BE READ LITERALLY WORD FOR WORD LINE BY LINE HOUR FOR HOUR in the four - not one, not two, not three, but 4:four Gospels written and preserved and provided of and by Almighty God our Lord and Saviour, INTACT, PURE AND TRUE FROM BEGINNING TO END.

SO THIS IS THE END-RESULT THEREFORE, HOUR FOR HOUR, NIGHT AND DAY, NIGHT AND DAY, NIGHT AND DAY "THE THIRD DAY" OF WHICH "I RISE".... upload_2022-7-19_11-21-28.png
 
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