Why Do You Call Me Good?

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ByGraceThroughFaith

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Why Do You Call Me Good?

“Now as He was going out on the road, one came running, kneeling down before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?” But Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except One, God (ὁ θεός)” (Mark 10:17-18; also Matthew 19:16-17; Luke 18:18-19)

Luke 18:18 says that the man was “A certain ruler asked him”.

These passages are used, or rather, misused by some, to try to prove, that here Jesus Himself says that He is not “God”, but only the Father is.

It is a complete misunderstanding, of what Jesus is saying here, for anyone to conclude, that He is saying, only the Father is God, and that He is not.

Here we have a “ruler” who comes kneeling before Jesus Christ, and ask Him directly, “Good Teacher”. Jesus says to Him, why are you addressing Me as “Good”, as there is only One Who is really “Good”, Who is the God of the Holy Bible. The emphasis here is on the WHY, and not on Jesus denying that He is GOD. As there is only One Who is Good, and this is GOD, WHY are you addressing ME as GOOD? It is actually confirmation from Jesus Himself, that He is GOD.

A simple question for those who use this to try to show that Jesus says that He is not God. Do you believe that Jesus Christ is not GOOD? The Greek for “good” here, is “ἀγᾰθός”, which is used for “morally good”, and “upright and honourable”, it is also used for someone who is “perfect”. The wicked Roman Emperor, Nero (37-68 AD), was described by some as “ ἀγαθὸς θεός (good god, Moulton and Milligan, VGNT)”, which is a complete contradiction, to who is really was. He lived during the time the Gospels were written.

Even before Jesus Christ was Born, we have:

“Then the angel said to her, The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you [like a shining cloud]; and so the holy (pure, sinless) Thing (Offspring) which shall be born of you will be called the Son of God” (Amplified Bible)

Jesus is here described as “ἅγιος”, that is, “in a moral sense, pure, sinless, upright, holy” (Thayer, Greek Lexicon). The Greek adjective is also used to describe “perfect”, without any fault.

In John 8:46, we have the Testimony of Jesus Himself, on His sinlessness:

“Who among you can convict Me of sin? If I tell the truth, why don't you believe Me?”

“Convict”, is from the Greek, “ἐλέγχω”, which means, “to accuse of, expose, to put one to shame, to find fault with”.

Jesus here challenges those who knew Him all His life, and those He walked among daily, if any of them could find any “fault or expose”, Him of any sin, where we have “ἁμαρτίας”, which is in the singular number, “of any single sin”. Earlier in this same chapter, Jesus says to the Jews who brought the woman who committed adultery, and all who were present, “But when they continued asking him, he looked up and said to them, “He who is without sin among you, let him throw the first stone at her.” (verse 7). Not a single person did so! The Bible is very clear, that, “ALL have sinned and fallen short of the Glory of God” (Romans 3:23), and in verse 10 says, “There is none righteous, no, not one”

We have the personal Testimony of Jesus Christ to His Absolute Perfection. We read the same of God in the Old Testament.

“The Rock! His work is perfect, For all His ways are just; A God of faithfulness and without injustice, Righteous and upright is He” (Deuteronomy 32:4); “To declare that the Lord is upright; He is my rock, and there is no unrighteousness in Him” (Psalm 92:15); “As for God, His way is blameless; The word of the Lord is tested; He is a shield to all who take refuge in Him” (2 Samuel 22:31)

We also have the sure Testimony from the New Testament on the Absolute Perfection, of the Lord Jesus Christ.

“For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted above the heavens” (Hebrews 7:26); “He committed no sin, neither was deceit found in his mouth” (1 Peter 1:22); “You know that he appeared to take away sins, and in him there is no sin” (1 John 3:5).

It is clear from the Testimony of Jesus Christ Himself, and other Scriptures, that, when Jesus says to the ruler in the Gospels, “No one is good except One, God”, that He includes Himself as God, as He, as God the Father, is Absolute Goodness.
 

RedFan

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Although I am a Trinitarian, I don't see anything in Mark 10:17-18; Matthew 19:16-17; and Luke 18:18-19 that the authors meant us to interpret as Jesus' declaration of divinity. If that were indeed what the three synoptic writers were trying to convey, they have been wildly obtuse! Matthew, Mark and Luke don't write elsewhere that Jesus declared himself to be God - and before we take this particular quote as such a self-declaration, don't we want to consider the whole of their gospels? I think so. The man Jesus was addressing wouldn't have taken this comment as a declaration of divinity. Neither do I.

Look at your syllogism for a moment:

A. Jesus asks the man why he is calling Jesus "good."
B. Jesus instructs the man that only God is "good."
therefore,
C. Jesus is declaring himself to be (or agreeing with the man that he is) "good" -- and hence, to be God.

Obviously C does not follow logically from A and B.

Is it POSSIBLE that this was Jesus' intention? Perhaps. Is it LIKELY? No. Can we resist the temptation to graft onto the synoptics' intended message what you refer to as "the sure Testimony from the New Testament on the Absolute Perfection, of the Lord Jesus Christ" (found in writings other than the synoptic gospels)? Well, one of us can.
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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Matthew, Mark and Luke don't write elsewhere that Jesus declared himself to be God


“This is he of whom it is written, “‘Behold, I send my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way before you.’” - Matthew 11:10; Mark 1:1-3; Luke 7:27

This is from Malachi 3:1

“Behold, I send My Messenger, And he shall make ready a way before Me.”

The Lord Jesus Christ, on His own Authority, has changed the words, so that they refer directly to Himself, what is in Malachi, of Yahweh. Jesus has changed the first person, “before Me (μου)”, to the second person, “before thee (σου)”. In the passage in Malachi, Yahweh speaks of the “messenger”, who is John the Baptist, as His forerunner, “going before Him”. Jesus, by changing the pronoun, appropriates what Yahweh Speaks in Malachi, to Himself, and makes John the Baptist as His own “messenger”, who went before Him! In the passage in Malachi, we also have the Coming of the “the Messenger (Angel) of the Covenant”, Who is “the Lord ('âdôn) Whom you seek”, before Whom John the Baptist went to “prepare the Way”!

It is very clear that Jesus, in making the change to the personal pronoun, applies the words in Malachi 3:1, which are Spoken by "Yahweh of Hosts", to Himself. Jesus would not have done so, had He been any "lower" than Yahweh, and not coequal with God the Father.

In Matthew 3:3, and the other Gospels, we read:

“For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Isaiah, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare you the Way of the Lord, make His paths straight.”

In the original verse in Isaiah 40:3, it reads, “The voice of him that cries in the wilderness, Prepare you the Way of Yahweh, make straight in the desert a highway for our God”

By using this passage in Isaiah for the Coming of the Lord Jesus Christ, in the Gospels, is beyond any doubt, one of the strongest evidences in Scripture, for the absolute Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ! Only those who doubt the Word of God, will doubt this about Jesus Christ.

Jesus Christ says of Himself that He is YHWH, The Eternal, Creator GOD; and the Gospels Testify the the Coming of the Lord Jesus Christ is the Coming of Yahweh Himself!
 

RedFan

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I'm not seeing more than a reference to Jesus as the Messiah in these passages. That's a far cry from the deity of Jesus.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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I'm not seeing more than a reference to Jesus as the Messiah in these passages. That's a far cry from the deity of Jesus.

Jesus says Himself that He is Yahweh, by applying the passage from Malachi 3:1, which is Spoken by Yahweh, to HIMSELF!

The Prophecy of the Coming of Yahweh, nothing about the Messiah, in Isaiah 40:3, is fulfilled in the Coming of the Lord Jesus Christ.

And you say that you cannot see this? then you must be blind to these Great Truths!

Further in the Gospel we read

"When He saw their faith, He said to him, “Man, your sins are forgiven you.”And the scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, “Who is this who speaks blasphemies? Who can forgive sins but God alone?” But when Jesus perceived their thoughts, He answered and said to them, “Why are you reasoning in your hearts? Which is easier, to say, ‘Your sins are forgiven you,’ or to say, ‘Rise up and walk’? But that you may know that the Son of Man has power on earth to forgive sins”—He said to the man who was paralyzed, “I say to you, arise, take up your bed, and go to your house.”" (Luke 5:20-24, and other Gospels)

Jesus never tried to correct them, by saying, I am here as a representative of God, and forgive sins on His behalf. Instead He makes it very clear that He has the Power/Authority to forgive sins, as God on earth!
 
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Charlie24

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Why Do You Call Me Good?

“Now as He was going out on the road, one came running, kneeling down before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?” But Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except One, God (ὁ θεός)” (Mark 10:17-18; also Matthew 19:16-17; Luke 18:18-19)

Luke 18:18 says that the man was “A certain ruler asked him”.

These passages are used, or rather, misused by some, to try to prove, that here Jesus Himself says that He is not “God”, but only the Father is.

It is a complete misunderstanding, of what Jesus is saying here, for anyone to conclude, that He is saying, only the Father is God, and that He is not.

Here we have a “ruler” who comes kneeling before Jesus Christ, and ask Him directly, “Good Teacher”. Jesus says to Him, why are you addressing Me as “Good”, as there is only One Who is really “Good”, Who is the God of the Holy Bible. The emphasis here is on the WHY, and not on Jesus denying that He is GOD. As there is only One Who is Good, and this is GOD, WHY are you addressing ME as GOOD? It is actually confirmation from Jesus Himself, that He is GOD.

A simple question for those who use this to try to show that Jesus says that He is not God. Do you believe that Jesus Christ is not GOOD? The Greek for “good” here, is “ἀγᾰθός”, which is used for “morally good”, and “upright and honourable”, it is also used for someone who is “perfect”. The wicked Roman Emperor, Nero (37-68 AD), was described by some as “ ἀγαθὸς θεός (good god, Moulton and Milligan, VGNT)”, which is a complete contradiction, to who is really was. He lived during the time the Gospels were written.

Even before Jesus Christ was Born, we have:

“Then the angel said to her, The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you [like a shining cloud]; and so the holy (pure, sinless) Thing (Offspring) which shall be born of you will be called the Son of God” (Amplified Bible)

Jesus is here described as “ἅγιος”, that is, “in a moral sense, pure, sinless, upright, holy” (Thayer, Greek Lexicon). The Greek adjective is also used to describe “perfect”, without any fault.

In John 8:46, we have the Testimony of Jesus Himself, on His sinlessness:

“Who among you can convict Me of sin? If I tell the truth, why don't you believe Me?”

“Convict”, is from the Greek, “ἐλέγχω”, which means, “to accuse of, expose, to put one to shame, to find fault with”.

Jesus here challenges those who knew Him all His life, and those He walked among daily, if any of them could find any “fault or expose”, Him of any sin, where we have “ἁμαρτίας”, which is in the singular number, “of any single sin”. Earlier in this same chapter, Jesus says to the Jews who brought the woman who committed adultery, and all who were present, “But when they continued asking him, he looked up and said to them, “He who is without sin among you, let him throw the first stone at her.” (verse 7). Not a single person did so! The Bible is very clear, that, “ALL have sinned and fallen short of the Glory of God” (Romans 3:23), and in verse 10 says, “There is none righteous, no, not one”

We have the personal Testimony of Jesus Christ to His Absolute Perfection. We read the same of God in the Old Testament.

“The Rock! His work is perfect, For all His ways are just; A God of faithfulness and without injustice, Righteous and upright is He” (Deuteronomy 32:4); “To declare that the Lord is upright; He is my rock, and there is no unrighteousness in Him” (Psalm 92:15); “As for God, His way is blameless; The word of the Lord is tested; He is a shield to all who take refuge in Him” (2 Samuel 22:31)

We also have the sure Testimony from the New Testament on the Absolute Perfection, of the Lord Jesus Christ.

“For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted above the heavens” (Hebrews 7:26); “He committed no sin, neither was deceit found in his mouth” (1 Peter 1:22); “You know that he appeared to take away sins, and in him there is no sin” (1 John 3:5).

It is clear from the Testimony of Jesus Christ Himself, and other Scriptures, that, when Jesus says to the ruler in the Gospels, “No one is good except One, God”, that He includes Himself as God, as He, as God the Father, is Absolute Goodness.

I agree! The certain ruler didn't recognize Him as God. Jesus could have said "only the Father is good" but He didn't, He said, "only God is good" including Himself.

There's no doubt about it! The man had the wrong perspective of who Christ was. He was not just a master/teacher, He was/is God.
 
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Enoch111

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Matthew, Mark and Luke don't write elsewhere that Jesus declared himself to be God - and before we take this particular quote as such a self-declaration, don't we want to consider the whole of their gospels?
That is incorrect and misleading. So rather than help you find the passages which refute this, I would suggest that you re-read those Gospels carefully, and then retract this statement.​
 
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ScottA

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Why Do You Call Me Good?

“Now as He was going out on the road, one came running, kneeling down before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?” But Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except One, God (ὁ θεός)” (Mark 10:17-18; also Matthew 19:16-17; Luke 18:18-19)

Luke 18:18 says that the man was “A certain ruler asked him”.

These passages are used, or rather, misused by some, to try to prove, that here Jesus Himself says that He is not “God”, but only the Father is.

It is a complete misunderstanding, of what Jesus is saying here, for anyone to conclude, that He is saying, only the Father is God, and that He is not.

Here we have a “ruler” who comes kneeling before Jesus Christ, and ask Him directly, “Good Teacher”. Jesus says to Him, why are you addressing Me as “Good”, as there is only One Who is really “Good”, Who is the God of the Holy Bible. The emphasis here is on the WHY, and not on Jesus denying that He is GOD. As there is only One Who is Good, and this is GOD, WHY are you addressing ME as GOOD? It is actually confirmation from Jesus Himself, that He is GOD.

A simple question for those who use this to try to show that Jesus says that He is not God. Do you believe that Jesus Christ is not GOOD? The Greek for “good” here, is “ἀγᾰθός”, which is used for “morally good”, and “upright and honourable”, it is also used for someone who is “perfect”. The wicked Roman Emperor, Nero (37-68 AD), was described by some as “ ἀγαθὸς θεός (good god, Moulton and Milligan, VGNT)”, which is a complete contradiction, to who is really was. He lived during the time the Gospels were written.

Even before Jesus Christ was Born, we have:

“Then the angel said to her, The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you [like a shining cloud]; and so the holy (pure, sinless) Thing (Offspring) which shall be born of you will be called the Son of God” (Amplified Bible)

Jesus is here described as “ἅγιος”, that is, “in a moral sense, pure, sinless, upright, holy” (Thayer, Greek Lexicon). The Greek adjective is also used to describe “perfect”, without any fault.

In John 8:46, we have the Testimony of Jesus Himself, on His sinlessness:

“Who among you can convict Me of sin? If I tell the truth, why don't you believe Me?”

“Convict”, is from the Greek, “ἐλέγχω”, which means, “to accuse of, expose, to put one to shame, to find fault with”.

Jesus here challenges those who knew Him all His life, and those He walked among daily, if any of them could find any “fault or expose”, Him of any sin, where we have “ἁμαρτίας”, which is in the singular number, “of any single sin”. Earlier in this same chapter, Jesus says to the Jews who brought the woman who committed adultery, and all who were present, “But when they continued asking him, he looked up and said to them, “He who is without sin among you, let him throw the first stone at her.” (verse 7). Not a single person did so! The Bible is very clear, that, “ALL have sinned and fallen short of the Glory of God” (Romans 3:23), and in verse 10 says, “There is none righteous, no, not one”

We have the personal Testimony of Jesus Christ to His Absolute Perfection. We read the same of God in the Old Testament.

“The Rock! His work is perfect, For all His ways are just; A God of faithfulness and without injustice, Righteous and upright is He” (Deuteronomy 32:4); “To declare that the Lord is upright; He is my rock, and there is no unrighteousness in Him” (Psalm 92:15); “As for God, His way is blameless; The word of the Lord is tested; He is a shield to all who take refuge in Him” (2 Samuel 22:31)

We also have the sure Testimony from the New Testament on the Absolute Perfection, of the Lord Jesus Christ.

“For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted above the heavens” (Hebrews 7:26); “He committed no sin, neither was deceit found in his mouth” (1 Peter 1:22); “You know that he appeared to take away sins, and in him there is no sin” (1 John 3:5).

It is clear from the Testimony of Jesus Christ Himself, and other Scriptures, that, when Jesus says to the ruler in the Gospels, “No one is good except One, God”, that He includes Himself as God, as He, as God the Father, is Absolute Goodness.
Yes...Jesus was offering the rationale for people to consider just who He was by their own determination, that those who came to Him and witnessed the things that He was doing, would be His witnesses, that they might believe.
 
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Waiting on him

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Why Do You Call Me Good?

“Now as He was going out on the road, one came running, kneeling down before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?” But Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except One, God (ὁ θεός)” (Mark 10:17-18; also Matthew 19:16-17; Luke 18:18-19)

Luke 18:18 says that the man was “A certain ruler asked him”.

These passages are used, or rather, misused by some, to try to prove, that here Jesus Himself says that He is not “God”, but only the Father is.

It is a complete misunderstanding, of what Jesus is saying here, for anyone to conclude, that He is saying, only the Father is God, and that He is not.

Here we have a “ruler” who comes kneeling before Jesus Christ, and ask Him directly, “Good Teacher”. Jesus says to Him, why are you addressing Me as “Good”, as there is only One Who is really “Good”, Who is the God of the Holy Bible. The emphasis here is on the WHY, and not on Jesus denying that He is GOD. As there is only One Who is Good, and this is GOD, WHY are you addressing ME as GOOD? It is actually confirmation from Jesus Himself, that He is GOD.

A simple question for those who use this to try to show that Jesus says that He is not God. Do you believe that Jesus Christ is not GOOD? The Greek for “good” here, is “ἀγᾰθός”, which is used for “morally good”, and “upright and honourable”, it is also used for someone who is “perfect”. The wicked Roman Emperor, Nero (37-68 AD), was described by some as “ ἀγαθὸς θεός (good god, Moulton and Milligan, VGNT)”, which is a complete contradiction, to who is really was. He lived during the time the Gospels were written.

Even before Jesus Christ was Born, we have:

“Then the angel said to her, The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you [like a shining cloud]; and so the holy (pure, sinless) Thing (Offspring) which shall be born of you will be called the Son of God” (Amplified Bible)

Jesus is here described as “ἅγιος”, that is, “in a moral sense, pure, sinless, upright, holy” (Thayer, Greek Lexicon). The Greek adjective is also used to describe “perfect”, without any fault.

In John 8:46, we have the Testimony of Jesus Himself, on His sinlessness:

“Who among you can convict Me of sin? If I tell the truth, why don't you believe Me?”

“Convict”, is from the Greek, “ἐλέγχω”, which means, “to accuse of, expose, to put one to shame, to find fault with”.

Jesus here challenges those who knew Him all His life, and those He walked among daily, if any of them could find any “fault or expose”, Him of any sin, where we have “ἁμαρτίας”, which is in the singular number, “of any single sin”. Earlier in this same chapter, Jesus says to the Jews who brought the woman who committed adultery, and all who were present, “But when they continued asking him, he looked up and said to them, “He who is without sin among you, let him throw the first stone at her.” (verse 7). Not a single person did so! The Bible is very clear, that, “ALL have sinned and fallen short of the Glory of God” (Romans 3:23), and in verse 10 says, “There is none righteous, no, not one”

We have the personal Testimony of Jesus Christ to His Absolute Perfection. We read the same of God in the Old Testament.

“The Rock! His work is perfect, For all His ways are just; A God of faithfulness and without injustice, Righteous and upright is He” (Deuteronomy 32:4); “To declare that the Lord is upright; He is my rock, and there is no unrighteousness in Him” (Psalm 92:15); “As for God, His way is blameless; The word of the Lord is tested; He is a shield to all who take refuge in Him” (2 Samuel 22:31)

We also have the sure Testimony from the New Testament on the Absolute Perfection, of the Lord Jesus Christ.

“For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted above the heavens” (Hebrews 7:26); “He committed no sin, neither was deceit found in his mouth” (1 Peter 1:22); “You know that he appeared to take away sins, and in him there is no sin” (1 John 3:5).

It is clear from the Testimony of Jesus Christ Himself, and other Scriptures, that, when Jesus says to the ruler in the Gospels, “No one is good except One, God”, that He includes Himself as God, as He, as God the Father, is Absolute Goodness.
Hey Helen, I have a question.
How did Jesus touch unclean lepers without having transgressed the law?
 

Charlie24

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Hey Helen, I have a question.
How did Jesus touch unclean lepers without having transgressed the law?

Christ didn't touch a leper! When He spoke the word to be healed, the leper was healed before Christ touched him.
 

RedFan

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That is incorrect and misleading. So rather than help you find the passages which refute this, I would suggest that you re-read those Gospels carefully, and then retract this statement.​

I wish you would help me. I'm not seeing any quote of Jesus' words in the synoptics in which he is claiming to be God.
 

RedFan

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#3 is very clear, but you seem to be blinded to this!

I'm trying, but I don't get your point about Jesus' changing προσώπου μου (as written in the LXX in Malachi) to προσώπου σου (as written in Matthew 11:10). As a declaration the Jesus is Yawheh, would not staying with προσώπου μου have been the stronger self-reference?
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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I'm trying, but I don't get your point about Jesus' changing προσώπου μου (as written in the LXX in Malachi) to προσώπου σου (as written in Matthew 11:10). As a declaration the Jesus is Yawheh, would not staying with προσώπου μου have been the stronger self-reference?

Malachi 3:1, " πρὸ προσώπου μου"

Matthew 11:10, "πρὸ προσώπου σου"

Jesus has changed the first person, “before Me (μου)”, to the second person, “before thee (σου)”

In doing so, Jesus makes Himself the Speaker in Malachi, Who is "Yahweh of Hosts", and in sending John the Baptist before Him.

What is so difficult to see here?
 
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RedFan

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Malachi 3:1, " πρὸ προσώπου μου"

Matthew 11:10, "πρὸ προσώπου σου"

Jesus has changed the first person, “before Me (μου)”, to the second person, “before thee (σου)”

In doing so, Jesus makes Himself the Speaker in Malachi, Who is "Yahweh of Hosts", and in sending John the Baptist before Him.

What is so difficult to see here?

To "make Himself the Speaker in Malachi" Jesus would need to retain the first person, not switch to the second person. Who do you think the "you" is that Jesus is referencing by revising the OT passage?
 
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Enoch111

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I wish you would help me. I'm not seeing any quote of Jesus' words in the synoptics in which he is claiming to be God.
Why do you need "any quote of Jesus' words" (although there are plenty)? Since the Gospels are the words of the Holy Spirit, they should also count for something.
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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To "make Himself the Speaker in Malachi" Jesus would need to retain the first person, not switch to the second person. Who do you think the "you" is that Jesus is referencing by revising the OT passage?

Jesus changes the person of the original, because He makes Himself the Speaker in Malachi! Learn some Greek grammar

Jesus is Speaking about His own Coming as the Messenger of the Covenant, the Messiah, as Yahweh
 
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Enoch111

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I'm not seeing more than a reference to Jesus as the Messiah in these passages. That's a far cry from the deity of Jesus.
Are you aware that even the Jewish rabbis expected their Messiah to be both divine and human? Whenever there is a reference to the Messiah, it implies that He is God. And Isaiah 9:6 does not merely imply. It EXPLICITLY states that Jesus is "the mighty God".

However for those who are willfully blind and willfully ignorant, God says He will not allow them to see and hear the truth. They will be judicially blinded.
 
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