Ernest T. Bass
Well-Known Member
This is not about "exact words" but about how you DEFINE water baptism in a way the Bible does not. Nowhere does the NT gospel teach one is saved BEFORE one has been water baptized but this is what you are attempting to read into it with your definition of water baptism.Does the Bible need to use those exact words? Plenty of examples. Ready?
John's baptism was public. That's an outward sign. (outside even) - LOL
And was a baptism of repentance. Inward reality? I hope so.
In the book of Acts we see some HUGE baptism events. 2000 and then 3000.
Those being added to the church.
Any possibility that these ceremonies were an outward sign of an inward reality?
Need more?
House of Cornelius, the Ethiopian eunuch, believers in Ephesus... More?
Again, water baptism saves (Acts 2:38 cf 1 Pet 3:21) it is HOW Christians/disciples are made (Matt 28:19-20) hence no such thing as an unbaptized Christian. Water baptism is commanded (Acts 10:47-48) which if for no other reason the command alone makes it essential to salvation. Water baptism is HOW one goes about obeying the gospel of Christ (2 Thess 1:8) for one will be in flaming fire if one does not obey the gospel of Christ. Not being water baptized is the same as rejecting the gospel message, (Acts 2:41).
Therefore nowhere does the Bible define water baptism as an outward sign of one being ALREADY saved BEFORE one was water baptized. Again, that is YOUR erroneous definition that cannot be found within the NT. Not a single example in any of the conversions in Acts of one being saved BEFORE one obeyed the command to be water baptized for the remission of sins.