No... You are combining those whom God has separated for a time, clearly identifying them as different. You cannot redefine what God has defined...nor can you redefine the definition of each even by use of common language. You are not being honest.
It does not say that "believers" "know", but rather that those who have "received" "anointing" "know." Perhaps you would do better to define the difference between one who "believes" that has not received the Holy Spirit, and one who has received the Holy Spirit - neither of whom have "seen."
So you say...which is not true in the way that I have presented it to you. When Paul "saw" a light for heaven shine around him and "heard" the voice of Christ, he did indeed see and hear. But others, filled with the Holy Spirit or not, whom did believe him...did NOT see or hear as Paul had. This is just one example - but you cannot deny it...and yet seem to insist upon doing so, against the word of God. You too kick against the goads.
Oh? (2Cor. 1:21-22) " Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God: Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts."
As you can see, Paul puts the Corinthian believers as 'anointed' as he and the apostles. And what a group they were. But yet they were anointed. Thus your attempt to make the 'anointed' in (1John 2:20,27) as pertaining to the 'knowers' is unscriptural. Even the carnal believers in the Corinthian Church were anointed. All believers know. All believers have been anointed. You're not special.
As for your example of Paul, Paul was not journying with believers. He was with unbelievers. So why should they hear? They certainly were not filled with the Holy Spirit. Your example fails.
Stranger