Ernest, what passage(s) besides verse 10 in 2 Cor 5:1-10 is referring to nonbelievers. Can you show me?
If there's only one judgment then please break down Rev 20:5 and Rev 20:11-15, and explain why the Bema Seat and the Great White throne are separated by a thousand years.
The Bible speaks of one judgment "the (definite article) judgment" and one judgment day where all, every one will be there.
Revelations 20:4-5 is a highly figurative passage. We are now living in that 1000 years that is the last dispensation which is the gospel dispensation. "
And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them". The ones on the thrones are Christians, some have been beheaded, some had not worshipped the beast. When it says "
judgment was given unto them" means God rendered judgment unto them, a good favorable judgment. It does NOT mean those Christians are sitting on thrones handing out judgment. Only Christ has been given authority to judge John 5:27.
Revelation 20:11ff Again, highly figurative language. Because of verses as Matthew 25:31 and 2 Corinthians 5:10 it must be Christ Who is on the great white throne for God has given authority of judging to Christ (John 5:22). "
whose face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place for them." It would be Christ's face with heaven and earth fleeing away would be the destruction of heaven and earth that will take place on judgment day 2 Peter 3:7-10
Rev 20:12 "
And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God;" refers to the general resurrection of all men good and bad John 5:28-29
Christ on his great throne will open books and judge ALL men.
Rev 20:13 "
And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell (those in the grave) delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works." A universal judgment of all men.
The context does not speak of multiple judgments, multiple judgment days or multiple judgers.
Heb 13:8 said:
Ok, so where do those who were saved under the OT law go when they die... Paradise, hell or Alabama?
The faithful that die whether they lived under the OT law or NT law will go to paradise when they die, Abraham's bosom.
Again, on judgment day books will be open, the OT book and NT book. Those that lived under the OT law will be judged by it and those that lived under the NT law will be judged by it.
The OT law required different laws (animal sacrifices, purifications, etc) for men to obey than the NT with different requirements (repentance confession baptism for remission of sins).
Heb 13:8 said:
Holy Spirit baptism Ernest, not H2O.
It does not say Holy Spirit baptism.
FF Bruce "“
baptism in the New Testament is always baptism in water unless the context shows it to be something else; that is to say, the word is always to be understood literally unless the context indicates a figurative meaning” (Questions Answered, p. 106)"
Since there is nothing in Ephesians 4:4-5 that shows baptism is used in a figurative sense, then proper exegesis says it refers to a literal burial in water.
The one baptism that is in effect today is Christ's baptism of the great commission that lasts till the end of the world (Matthew 28:19-20) that consists of disciples (humans) administering water baptism.
If John 3:5 refers to some "spirit baptism" and we see from the discourse between Jesus and Nicodemus that Nicodemus had not been born again, then whose fault is it that he had not been born again? Must be the Holy Spirit's fault for not having "spirit baptized". How can Nicodemus be fairly, rightly justly condemned for not being born again when it was totally out of his control and 100% controlled by the HS?
Yet we know that John 3:5 refers to water baptism. And since Nicodemus and others like him rejected John's water baptism (Luke 7:30). Since men have been commanded to be water baptized, then accountability and responsibility lie with men who fail to obey this command.
No one was ever commanded to be baptized with the Holy Spirit so it cannot be obeyed by men. Only the Lord can baptize with the Holy Spirit (Matthew 3:11) and men cannot not. So again, if John 3:5 refers to spirit baptism then blame accountability cannot be put on Nicodemus for something out of his control.
Heb 13:8 said:
Then why did Jesus promise Paradise to the thief if Jesus knew he hadn't died yet? Can Jesus make such a claim? Are you a teacher of the law Ernest?
Mark 2:1-12 A few days later, when Jesus again entered Capernaum, the people heard that he had come home. 2They gathered in such large numbers that there was no room left, not even outside the door, and he preached the word to them. 3Some men came, bringing to him a paralyzed man, carried by four of them. 4Since they could not get him to Jesus because of the crowd, they made an opening in the roof above Jesus by digging through it and then lowered the mat the man was lying on. 5When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralyzed man, “Son, your sins are forgiven.” 6Now some teachers of the law were sitting there, thinking to themselves, 7“Why does this fellow talk like that? He’s blaspheming! Who can forgive sins but God alone?”
8Immediately Jesus knew in his spirit that this was what they were thinking in their hearts, and he said to them, “Why are you thinking these things? 9Which is easier: to say to this paralyzed man, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Get up, take your mat and walk’? 10But I want you to know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins.” So he said to the man, 11“I tell you, get up, take your mat and go home.” 12He got up, took his mat and walked out in full view of them all. This amazed everyone and they praised God, saying, “We have never seen anything like this!”
God bless
Matthew 9:6 when Jesus was ON EARTH as He was with the thief, He had been given power, authority to forgive sins of those whom He thought was deserving as the thief. BY forgiving the thief his sins meant salvation for the thief..forgiveness of sins = salvation. NO ONE today therefore can claim they were saved just like the thief for
1) Christ is not one earth today personally forgiving the sins of men.
2) After Christ died and ascended back to heaven He left behind His NT gospel as His authority in how men today are saved Romans 1:16. That NT gospel requires belief John 8:24 repentance Luke 13:3 confession Mt 10:32-33 and baptism Mark 16:16. These were not required of the thief for he did not live under the NT gospel making salvation different for him than for us today.
Again, this the very reason why faith only-ists run back to the OT to try and justify 'faith only-ism'
for they cannot find a single example of salvation by faith only under the NT gospel of Christ. They cannot even prove the thief was saved by 'faith only' so why do they even bring him up?