Please explain this.

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bbyrd009

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man, i'm still not getting what the diff in plate or platter have to do with any point, yet i see there is a point to be made apparently
Thank you for bearing with me!

Much love!
ha pls i wish was as nice as you marks, doesnt matter if you believe eternal means immortal right now, not even a little imo
 

justbyfaith

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Again, I am going to ask if you will tell @GodsGrace about her choices...the doctrine of Free Will you believe in.
I'm not sure what relevance this has to the issues at hand...

People who have been created by the Lord, have been given free will even to the point that they can make the insanest of choices...when faced with eternal fire, many choose to even go to that fire for some strange reason.
 
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Grailhunter

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I'm not sure what relevance this has to the issues at hand...

People who have been created by the Lord, have been given free will even to the point that they can make the insanest of choices...when faced with eternal fire, many choose to even go to that fire for some strange reason.

I like that!
 
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Nancy

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I believe that the reason why certain people cannot understand the kjv is the principle of 1 Corinthians 2:14. They read it and think with their natural minds and therefore it comes across as foolishness to them and they cannot receive it and they do not understand it. They need the Holy Spirit to be able to understand it. Therefore, the kjv requires a dependence upon the Holy Spirit if one is going to understand it. Other translations make the concepts palatable to the natural mind.

What is sacrificed is the power of the gospel to save; because the concepts are watered-down to increase palatability. And the lack of potency means that salvation will not come through reading such translations except by a true miracle; over and above the miracle of regular salvation that comes more easily when you are reading the kjv: because while in reading the kjv you may not understand it, the seed is potent: but in reading other translations you may be able to understand the concept but the potency of the seed is lost or compromised. So it is a miracle either way: 1) to understand the kjv well enough to be saved by its concepts, or 2) to somehow infuse potency into that which is not potent enough to bring salvation, in translations other than the kjv.



Most definitely.



I understood it as a new Christian.



Sorry, the kjv does not have any mistakes. The ones that are most often touted do not count and there are only two or three. One of them is "Easter" (which I hold to be an accurate translation of pascha when you take into account that pascha was the word for Easter in Greek culture when the kjv was translated); and the other is "God forbid" which is simply taking into account the idioms of the day. When debating the kjv-only controversy, I do not find the opposition speaking of anything other than these, as examples of mistakes in the kjv. And they simply do not count.



It really depends on whether you are counting on your works to save you or whether you are relying wholly on the grace of God. If you are relying wholly on the grace of God, then you are covered by the grace of the Lord when you mess up. But if you are relying on your works to keep you saved, then you cannot be relying on the grace of God. Because grace and works are mutually exclusive when it comes to salvation (Romans 11:5-6 (kjv)). So then, the person relying on works to save them cannot revert back to grace when they mess up: they are required to do those works and if they fail to do them there is condemnation; because if they are saved by works, they are condemned over the lack of them.



This is where I find you deeply lacking in understanding of the most basic doctrines of the holy scriptures. I would suggest reading the epistle of Paul to the Romans all the way through, once a day, for about three weeks; and perhaps also include the epistle of Paul to the Galatians in that reading. These books of the Bible are essential to our understanding of the doctrines of salvation. Ask the Holy Spirit to speak to you while you are reading and to give you insight, understanding, wisdom, revelation, knowledge, and faith from your encounter with the Lord in His word. Pray also that it will be an encounter.

Pro 10:8, The wise in heart will receive commandments: but a prating fool shall fall.
BTW-I believe the Holy Spirit can certainly work through other bible versions and, we cannot know if someone has or does not have the H.S...He teaches all of us differently, it seems. Who is 100% correct in every single biblical truth? Have not met a one yet far as I can discern.
:)
 

Lady Crosstalk

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OK. This goes to how I read Scripture. This is a narrative passage, same as the crossing of the red sea, for instance. It simply says, this happened, and that happened, and so forth. So then since it says, Samuel spoke, I believe that's what happened.

As far as the quotes around "Samuel" speaking, I don't know that this would be the same in Hebrew.

Even the "lying spirit" was truthfully reported. That's how I see this.

Much love!

My point was that Biblical Hebrew only has about a 5,000 word vocabulary and no punctuation (compared to about 110,000 words for English). Much of the meaning of a word depends on its context. In this case, the context was the demonic deception of necromancy and the point of view was Saul's. He apparently believed that it really was Samuel (and I'm not saying it wasn't). It is whatever it was and I can see it either way as a possibility.
 
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GodsGrace

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man, i'm still not getting what the diff in plate or platter have to do with any point, yet i see there is a point to be made apparently

ha pls i wish was as nice as you marks, doesnt matter if you believe eternal means immortal right now, not even a little imo
This is a plate:


This is a platter:


This is the end of poor John:


And this is a charger:

  • upload_2019-7-11_10-28-53.jpeg

End of story!
 

GodsGrace

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You would have to begin to forsake salvation by works and put your faith in Jesus Christ alone for your salvation (Galatians 3:14)

The moment you switched over to salvation by works and stopped relying on the grace of God, the Holy Spirit very likely left you. Actually, God knew that you would switch over from salvation by grace through faith to salvation by works and very likely never sealed you in the first place; because He knew that you would leave off of trusting in Him for your salvation and switch over to trusting in your own works to save you.
What exactly does it mean to put my faith in Jesus Christ alone?
Does it mean I should give up doing good deeds because then the Holy Spirit will likely leave me if I DO the good deeds?

And God looks into the future and acts accordingly?
He doesn't go moment by moment?
Do you realize the ramifications of this statement?
It means that some babies that are born are going straight to hell
because God foreknew that they were not going to accept Him.

You have your theology very confused.
It causes theological problems.

BTW, I like what Jesus said.
He said that we are His friends if we follow His commandments.
That means there are commandments to follow.
And I will follow them.

You are free to do good deeds or bad deeds,,,,Jesus will decide our fate...
NOT YOU.

Actually, it is not OSAS that I believe in, but POTS. I believe this based on 1 John 2:17.
I have no idea what POTS is. It seems many of us make up our very own theories about God, and your is based on 1 John 2:17

1 John 2:17
17The world is passing away, and also its lusts; but the one who does the will of God lives forever.


YOU do the will of God?
You just got thru telling me if I depend on my good deeds then I must be lost...and yet YOU are depending on doing the will of God??
Does God will you to do evil deeds?
IF you're obeying God, are you sure you still have the Holy Spirit?
You told me the Holy Spirit probably left me when I switched to doing good deeds.

You are rather confused.
3 John 1:11 and all of 3 John.

The fact that you think I might believe differently now indicates to me that you also believe that there is a difference in the message that we might get from different Bibles when we have the full understanding of what they teach as a whole...and therefore my contention that having different translations brings division to the body of Christ concerning doctrine indeed has merit. btw, the NASB teaches damnable heresy...I wouldn't touch one of those bibles with a ten foot pole.
You think too many things of me that are not right.
You should stop thinking.

What is heretical about the NASB?

The reason I told you to read the N.T. in a different version is to SHOW YOU that your ideas would NOT change.

The bible doesn't save us...
Jesus does.



Except that the potency of the gospel is found in the understanding of the true grace of God...and therefore legalism will reduce the potency of what the holy scriptures teach. Since grace is what saves and legalism is spiritual poison, I do not recommend continuing to read a bible that teaches you legalism as salvation.

Remember that we are regenerated and renewed, not by works of righteousness which we have done...and therefore salvation through legalism will only bring you up on empty.
What is legalism?
Is it, for instance, a person such as yourself that seems to know who is saved and who isn't?
Which bibles save and which do not?
One who believes good deeds are a hinderance to our faith?
I think YOU are the legalist here since you have so many rules to follow if one wants to be saved.

My only rule is to be IN CHRIST.


I have no problem understanding any of those verses. All you have to do is ask the Holy Spirit what He means by them, and read the verses in their context so you can get the meaning of the surrounding verses; which will help you to understand the verses in question.
Which verse would those be JBF?
Have you neglected to exegete my verses again?


So you'r one of those liberals...you deny the veracity of the word of the Lord as we have it given to us today.

However, I would say that 2 Timothy 3:16-17 both contradicts and refutes your pov.
You're thinking too much again.
Why not just reply to my posts?

(Did I say scripture was NOT inspired by God?)
It's inspired by Him.
He just didn't type it out Himself.
Do you know the difference...



The only part Mary had in our salvation is that she bore our Saviour in her womb...

Unfortunately, much of the Catholic church teaches that she is a co-redemptress with Christ; that she is ultimately also a Saviour alongside of Christ. And this is simply not a scriptural concept...the holy scripture contradicts it in 1 Timothy 2:5.



My position in the debate is the kjv-superior position (not kjv-only); because I do feel that other translations (while they ought not to be held as authoritative) can help us in our understanding if we are having trouble with the kjv's archaic language.

There are reasons for holding the kjv to be authoritative over and above other translations.

A new Christian will do just fine reading an old-fashioned kjv.

Churches that only allow the kjv probably do so because the pastor communicates from it and if the parishioners are reading a different version, there can be miscommunication.

Not to mention other versions are watered-down and therefore if you read them on your own time you are very likely to become malnoiurished spiritually.

Example: how in Romans 8:1 and Romans 11:6, the last half of both verses is entirely taken out in other versions. Or, how the whole of Jesus' words in Luke 9:55-56, and the whole of the statement in 1 John 5:7 (the johannine comma) are completely annihilated in some versions. Things like this happen all over the place, a word here, a phrase there...it amounts to a lack of potency that can even affect the salvation of the reader.
1. I can tell you for a fact that kids have enough problems understanding the bible without handing them one that needs to be translated into modern English first.

I think the above was for another member.

Romans 8:1
What changes? In other places it says that we walk after the flesh and not the spirit.

Also is you look at the bottom of that page, it'll list 5 items that were in the KJ and not in some ancient manuscripts.
Perhaps we just know more today?? And that is why some sentences are left out?

Romans 11:6 just repeats .... again, makes no difference.

Luke 9:55-56 some bibles have this in brackets...which means it was NOT in some manuscripts.


1 John 5:7.9 this is different....

Do you know WHY there are different manuscripts?
How could we know FOR SURE which ones are the correct ones?
 
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bbyrd009

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This is a plate:


This is a platter:


This is the end of poor John:


And this is a charger:


End of story!
well you would maybe carry a charger diff, all i could think of...but youre saying i didnt miss anything here i guess? Or no reveal anyway? Seemed like "rolling around" was the issue or something?
 

stunnedbygrace

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No you didn't miss anything. It all began with one man trying to point out that the KJV uses words some don't know. He used charger as an example. I'm the dummy who said I didn't think charger was an archaic word and that most would know it was a big plate or platter. It was all my fault.
 
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bbyrd009

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Yes. A man's enemies will be in his own house/tent.
"will be" right. Which i never thought about that too much but that pretty much pins that "will be" to a specific...phase, prolly, being as how when a man is somethingsomething, even his enemies are at peace with him paraphrased?
Proverbs 16:7 Lexicon: When a man's ways are pleasing to the LORD, He makes even his enemies to be at peace with him.

course i guess if you, one, does not believe that works matter you, one, will not be needing this v either i guess huh, speaking generally?
 

stunnedbygrace

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"will be" right. Which i never thought about that too much but that pretty much pins that "will be" to a specific...phase, prolly, being as how when a man is somethingsomething, even his enemies are at peace with him paraphrased?

When a man's ways are pleasing to the Lord even his enemies will be at peace with him?
 
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bbyrd009

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When a man's ways are pleasing to the Lord even his enemies will be at peace with him?
pretty close anyway, ya. Some he makes the enemies do that apparently, which "He" is usually assumed to be "God" i guess. We would need a Scholar to expalin which better i guess
Proverbs 16:7 Interlinear: When a man's ways please Jehovah, even his enemies, He causeth to be at peace with him.
danged if i can figure it out, reads diff depending on which link you follow, hmm
yas-lim or 7999 or e? dunno. Havent figured out tenses of Hebrew yet, and tbh i dont think anyone else has either, lol
 

GodsGrace

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well you would maybe carry a charger diff, all i could think of...but youre saying i didnt miss anything here i guess? Or no reveal anyway? Seemed like "rolling around" was the issue or something?
Let me say this:
I agree with you that the KJV is difficult to understand.
To me, a charger is a car. I'm living NOW, not 400 years ago.
Language needs to be updated.
Nobody I know speaks like Shakespeare used to.
 
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bbyrd009

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so, strictly an aside, dunno if any scholars will show up to help us here but the v is impossible to xlate "correctly" into English via the rules we hold in common for Hebrew syntax, something about that last "he" mentioned is always the "he" being referred to, ergo "his enemies" indicates "a man," but also we only have 3 other Scriptural uses for yaslim that all apparently refer to God.

last time i wasnt driving so this isnt coming out the same, but a grammarian would tell us that the sentence is contructed strangely even for Hebrew, you know, the way we might change the phrase order in a sentence, like genie-style, the way she used English? And also that this, these weird sentence constructions in Hebrew, go on all the time in the Bible, like constantly, well in the OT anyway, but are i think strangely absent in the NT, although different like obfuscations occur there?

Point being that scholars do not agree on a bunch of the xlations we get to read, bc they cannot agree, one rule or another must be broken in order to even put down a guess? Which is what we then read as "Gospel" i guess see. Just a weird thing, another weird thing, about the Bible, Hebrews did not think like we do, did not name things like we do, by appearance, they used a different rule for that, do not even write in the same direction we do, right, we come from the left, they come from the right, and i guess one slowly comes to the conclusion as a Hebrew scholar that these were intentional, seemingly designed even, to point out this difference?

i wish an anglish phrase would come to mind for an example, i guess i shoulda went and dug up the old study but its on AFF and i'd have to crack it again to find it, anyway something like if someone asked you "which he?" for the following English sentence, "When a man's ways are pleasing to the Lord he makes even his enemies to be at oeace with him" where see i broke an English rule? Bc in English the "he" is now not proper sentence construction, see, we would properly...delineate, sorry, indicate, be more specific iow, either repeat "man" or "Lord" there for a proper sentence? So the answer to "which he?" cannot really even be answered as is. Goes on all the time in Hebrew i guess?
 

GodsGrace

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so, strictly an aside, dunno if any scholars will show up to help us here but the v is impossible to xlate "correctly" into English via the rules we hold in common for Hebrew syntax, something about that last "he" mentioned is always the "he" being referred to, ergo "his enemies" indicates "a man," but also we only have 3 other Scriptural uses for yaslim that all apparently refer to God.

last time i wasnt driving so this isnt coming out the same, but a grammarian would tell us that the sentence is contructed strangely even for Hebrew, you know, the way we might change the phrase order in a sentence, like genie-style, the way she used English? And also that this, these weird sentence constructions in Hebrew, go on all the time in the Bible, like constantly, well in the OT anyway, but are i think strangely absent in the NT, although different like obfuscations occur there?

Point being that scholars do not agree on a bunch of the xlations we get to read, bc they cannot agree, one rule or another must be broken in order to even put down a guess? Which is what we then read as "Gospel" i guess see. Just a weird thing, another weird thing, about the Bible, Hebrews did not think like we do, did not name things like we do, by appearance, they used a different rule for that, do not even write in the same direction we do, right, we come from the left, they come from the right, and i guess one slowly comes to the conclusion as a Hebrew scholar that these were intentional, seemingly designed even, to point out this difference?

i wish an anglish phrase would come to mind for an example, i guess i shoulda went and dug up the old study but its on AFF and i'd have to crack it again to find it, anyway something like if someone asked you "which he?" for the following English sentence, "When a man's ways are pleasing to the Lord he makes even his enemies to be at oeace with him" where see i broke an English rule? Bc in English the "he" is now not proper sentence construction, see, we would properly...delineate, sorry, indicate, be more specific iow, either repeat "man" or "Lord" there for a proper sentence? So the answer to "which he?" cannot really even be answered as is. Goes on all the time in Hebrew i guess?
When a man's ways are pleasing to the Lord,
The Lord makes even the man's enemies be at peace with the man.
 

bbyrd009

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True on two levels.
yeh, that would be one conclusion, there are others too though. Not so much at this v, but when theos is used instead of...YHWH, which btw is not much better than "Jehovah" i guess, both are, well Jehovah is just made up, but even YHWH is too um transliterated as it turns out, in English a better sense is gotten from AEOU almost surely, as yhw(h) are not even vowels in English right
 

bbyrd009

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When a man's ways are pleasing to the Lord,
The Lord makes even the man's enemies be at peace with the man.
breaks the Hebrew rule of "last object" though see, not disagreeing though. Plus "the man" there at the end is understood, no clarification needed there, no rules broken at just "him" iow. The point i meant to make is what sbg said though, they are intentionally made to work on two levels by breaking a rule, the way we might even say an english or i guess any language sentence some weird way, rearrange the phrases funny, for a joke or to like force a certain way of hearing it?

which iow will never come out by just reading a v in English, in fact if you ever get a foreign language speaker proficient in your native tongue do your best to do a bible study with them and let them drive...the Bible in Inuit? Lol, fuggeda boudit you are gonna think you are on a different planet lol. That Inuit lady is goin to Quote some stuff youre gonna think she is insane. But sure enou when she explains the Spirit is maintained, she ends up at the same place only by a totally diff route than you can even hear or understand in English
 
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