OzSpen
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- Mar 30, 2015
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Isn't it:
And the word was God ?
GodsGrace,
Why would anyone on an English Christian forum start a thread with the title: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος?
Tranliterated it is en arche en ho logos, kai ho logos en pros ton theon, kai theos en ho logos = (literally) 'In beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was with the God and God was the Word'.
Here's a technical explanation.
Colwell's rule in Greek grammar states that the definite predicate nouns that precede the verb (in Greek) do not take a definite article. This is to indicate which noun is the subject and which is the predicate in the clause. This applies to καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος =kai theos en ho logos. Theos (God) is not accompanied by a definite article, thus indicating it is the predicate of the clause. Since ho logos is accompanied by a definite article, it is translated as the subject of the clause.
Thus, 'The Word was God' is the correct translation and not as in the NWT of the JWs, ''the Word was a god'.
For those of us under the British system, what USA grammar calls the predicate nominative in association with the verb 'to be', we Aussies call the complement of the sentence.
There will be the occasional exception to Colwell's Rule, but the context determines that.
Oz
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