Please read the portion italicized and underlined in each version of John 16:13 below and explain what all those versions are saying about how the Holy Spirit will speak and not speak.
John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. KJV
John 16:13 But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. NIV
John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he shall guide you into all the truth: for he shall not speak from himself; but what things soever he shall hear, these shall he speak: and he shall declare unto you the things that are to come. ASV
John 16:13 When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come. ESV
John 16:13 But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. NASB
How can this "not" be applied to how the Holy Spirit cannot use God's gift of tongues for uttering His own intercessions?
Other than the KJV, John 16:13 in most Bible version opposes how modern versions has Romans 8:26-27 implying that sounds are being uttered for when the Holy Spirit makes intercessions whereas the KJV has it that even His groanings can not be uttered. The Holy Spirit cannot speak nor utter groanings even for Himself as John 16:13 in all Bibles says.
Did Jesus really say that? Did Jesus really meant that? Did Jesus say the Holy Spirit cannot speak nor utter anything at all for Himself, but can only speak what He hears? I'd say yes.
So how do you explain and apply John 16:13 from what all those Bible versions are saying?
John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. KJV
John 16:13 But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. NIV
John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he shall guide you into all the truth: for he shall not speak from himself; but what things soever he shall hear, these shall he speak: and he shall declare unto you the things that are to come. ASV
John 16:13 When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come. ESV
John 16:13 But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. NASB
How can this "not" be applied to how the Holy Spirit cannot use God's gift of tongues for uttering His own intercessions?
Other than the KJV, John 16:13 in most Bible version opposes how modern versions has Romans 8:26-27 implying that sounds are being uttered for when the Holy Spirit makes intercessions whereas the KJV has it that even His groanings can not be uttered. The Holy Spirit cannot speak nor utter groanings even for Himself as John 16:13 in all Bibles says.
Did Jesus really say that? Did Jesus really meant that? Did Jesus say the Holy Spirit cannot speak nor utter anything at all for Himself, but can only speak what He hears? I'd say yes.
So how do you explain and apply John 16:13 from what all those Bible versions are saying?