1 Peter 2:24 = Hebrews 13:8

[Robert Gwin]

I suggest to all Jehovah's Witnesses that they do a google search on "Watchtower false prophecies".

If you are wiling to do the work, it should be an eye-opener for you.

Then, consider that if the Watchtower Society is a false prophet, their rendition of John 1:1-3 and John 1:14 is very likely faulty; and you ought to consider the more orthodox translations as concerning what these verses might say to you.

We do not prophesy sir. Best to research God's identity of His people. He identifies His people in the Bible, as it is His responsibility to do so.

 

[Robert Gwin]

God the Father, God the Son (Jesus) and God the Holy Spirit.

We have a God that died for us - how awesome is that. In the Old Covenant Abraham and co shed their own blood. In the New Covenant God shed his. Awesome.

Not a Bible teaching maam John 3:16

Interesting you mentioned Abraham, did you know that God told Abraham to offer his son as well, that prefigured Jehovah offering His son, Abraham was not Isaac any more that Jehovah is Jesus

 

[keithr]

Well, i didnt recognize the Queen James Bible.
So, ive not read all the new versions.
And neither should you.

There is nothing wrong with reading different translations of the Bible. It can sometimes help you discover or understand the correct meaning, even if you don't trust the accuracy of those translations.

If you would not mind, dont Post the NIV, or the Living Bible, or the Book of Mormon, or a JW book, or anything written by a Catholic.
Its probably best to quote the KJV, as most have seen it.

I have never quoted any of those translations or publications. But just quoting a different translation from the one you prefer is no reason for you to accuse somebody of deliberately changing some words and trying to deceive. Why not show some love for a change, instead of hate?! ("He that saith he is in the light, and hateth his brother, is in darkness even until now", 1 John 2:9; "For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another", 1 John 3:11; "We know that we have passed from death unto life, because we love the brethren. He that loveth not his brother abideth in death", 1 John 3:14.)

If you're too lazy to look it up in your favourite translation, then okay, I'll do it for you. Here is my reply again with all quotes from the KJV (they're not so different, so I'm surprised you didn't recognise them):

(1 John 2:1) My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:

Anyone who is begotten again can still commit sins, for "As it is written, “There is none righteous, no, not one”" (Romans 3:10). But Jesus is our advocate, who intercedes to God for us.

1 John 1:7-10:

7) But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
8) If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
9) If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
10) If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.​

We are not perfect yet, we are not sinless yet. We won't be until we are resurrected (born again), when we will then be given a perfect, immortal spirit body.
------------------------

While I'm at it, let me quote some other verses from 1 John:

16) If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.​

Or as the REB translates it ;):

16) If anyone sees a fellow-Christian committing a sin which is not a deadly sin, he should intercede for him, and God will grant him life - that is, to those who are not guilty of deadly sin. There is such a thing as deadly sin, and I do not suggest that he should pray about that.​

So this is suggesting that Christians can sin. And yet in another verse he suggests the opposite (you'll like this verse ;)):

3:9) Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.​

or (Darby):

3:9) Whoever has been begotten of God does not practise sin, because his seed abides in him, and he cannot sin, because he has been begotten of God.​

(The Greek word that is translated as "born" is the exact same word that is translated as "begotten" and "begat" in the verse above and the verse below. It has to be translated according to the context because there are not different words for begat, begotten and born in the Greek. "begotten" is the obvious correct translation in 3:9 because it mentions that God's seed remains in him, i.e. he has been begotten and not born yet.)

So we cannot suppose that John would say one thing and then a little later contradict himself. I therefore believe he is suggesting that Christians can sin, but that our intention should be that we don't sin, and if we do sin, despite our efforts not to, then we can confess our sins in prayer to God and He will forgive us for those sins. God knows that although we have been begotten again as new creatures in Christ, we live in imperfect human bodies, and so we cannot live perfectly and sinless. But we can have perfect intentions, and God can and does read our hearts and judges us by our faith and intentions. We can have perfect intentions, even if our imperfect bodies prevent us from living up to that perfect standard.

This is what I believe Paul is saying in Romans 7 and 8:

7:25) I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.
8:1) There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
8:2) For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
8:3) For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
8:4) That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
8:5) For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.
8:6) For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace.
8:7) Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.
8:8) So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.
8:9) But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
8:10) And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.
8:11) But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.

Regarding who is "born again":

5:1) Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.​

or (ASV):

5:1) Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is begotten of God: and whosoever loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.​

I do believe that Jesus is the Christ (Messiah), so according to your preferred translation I am born again. According to a more precise study and translation, I am begotten again. According to the KJV, if you are born again then you love me, so thank you. :) I love you too!

 

[keithr]

If Jesus is not God. He lied..

In that case Jesus is a liar (unless you are wrong!):

Jesus said before his death, John 10:
33) The Jews answered him, “We don’t stone you for a good work, but for blasphemy: because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
34) Jesus answered them, “Isn’t it written in your law, ‘I said, you are gods?’
35) If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture can’t be broken),
36) do you say of him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God?’

John 14:28)
You heard how I told you, ‘I go away, and I come to you.’ If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I said ‘I am going to my Father;’ for the Father is greater than I.

Jesus said after his resurrection, John 20:17)
Jesus said to her, “Don’t hold me, for I haven’t yet ascended to my Father; but go to my brothers, and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”

Jesus said after his ascension, Rev 3:12)
He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will go out from there no more. I will write on him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from my God, and my own new name.

 

[Eternally Grateful]

Simple, man gave you your sin, a corresponding ransom was needed to redeem you.
(1 Corinthians 15:22) . . .For just as in Adam all are dying, so also in the Christ all will be made alive.

Adam was not God, therefore God need not be ransomed to buy back what Adam lost. Jehovah sent His son as a perfect human, which was a corresponding equal ransom.

That’s no simple at al

man can’t take your sin and my sin and the sin of every man woman and child of all creation and pay the debt, only God can

at best, a man could take the sin of one other man.

Jesus did not just hand to become a new head of a group of people, the sin debt had to be paid, or else the sin debt would keep us in Adam.
He redeemed us from our sin, redemption had a price, only God has the capacity to pay that debt for mankind,

 

[Eternally Grateful]

In that case Jesus is a liar (unless you are wrong!):

John 10:
33) The Jews answered him, “We don’t stone you for a good work, but for blasphemy: because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
34) Jesus answered them, “Isn’t it written in your law, ‘I said, you are gods?’
35) If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture can’t be broken),
36) do you say of him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God?’

John 20:17)
Jesus said to her, “Don’t hold me, for I haven’t yet ascended to my Father; but go to my brothers, and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”

John 14:28)
You heard how I told you, ‘I go away, and I come to you.’ If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I said ‘I am going to my Father;’ for the Father is greater than I.

Rev 3:12)
He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will go out from there no more. I will write on him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from my God, and my own new name.

Did Jesus correct Thomas when he said that he was his lord and God?
No

did Jesus correct the jews when they tried to stone him for blasphemy by proclaiming himself to be the great I Am? No

did Jesus not tell the jews, come close to him, has he not told them from the beginning, and now the father and spirit have sent him (OT)

of course he is a son of god, he is also called the son of man, he is also called the YHWH of Israel,

 

[Pearl]

Why does this old chestnut keep appearing on Christian forums. Of course Jesus is God. That fact is at the heart of Christianity. But so may people - mostly men - take enormous pleasure from debating it and denying it.

 

[keithr]

My question is what hope can we have if he is not God. How can man pay for my sin?

This is basic Christian faith! The whole of the Bible is all about God redeeming mankind from sin and death, which could only be done by finding a substitute to pay the penalty for sin (death). No man could do it because they were all corrupted and had a sinful nature, inherited from Adam, and the redemption price for Adam, at the time a perfect man until he sinned, at which point he was corrupted and started dying, is the death of another perfect man. No angel could be a substitute because they were not men. God could not do it because he has always been immortal, meaning that he cannot possibly die. God's solution was for his only begotten son, Jesus, to be changed from mortal spirit being to become a mortal man, and for him to die in Adam's place. Hence Jesus had to be sinless at the time of his death. Because Jesus was sinless God was just in resurrecting Jesus to life again, at which point he gave Jesus a new spritual nature, immortal like God himself has. Jesus now has the authority to resurrect everyone to life, which he will do, and everyone will have the opporunity or eternal life.

That is why we have hope. And we could not have any hope of eternal life if Jesus had been God!

 

[justbyfaith]

You posted half of it.
Go and read the rest.
Put your commentary down,, and read the rest, in a BIBLE, if you own one.
Start where Paul says that he has discovered that this is not who he is....
Find this part, deceiver.... "Christ always gives me the victory".

See that "victory">?
That is Paul redefining himself as God's perspective of him.

Not a sinner, but "always Victory".

And again, the point in quoting Romans 7:18 is that we are our flesh...not that we don't have the victory in Christ.

Anyone who is begotten again can still commit sins, for "As it is written, “There is none righteous, no, not one”" (Romans 3:10).

Romans 3:10-18 is what the law says to those who are under it (Romans 3:19).

In Romans 6:14, we find that born again believers are not under the law.

Also, in Romans 3:9, we find that Romans 3:10-18 refers to the Jews and the Gentiles. However there are three categories in 1 Corinthians 10:32...Jews, Gentiles, and the church of God. Therefore the church is exempt from what is written in Romans 3:10-18.

We are not perfect yet, we are not sinless yet.

We are not sinless (1 John 1:8)...but we can be perfect (Hebrews 10:14).

In that the element of sin within us can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) so that it no longer has any say over our behaviour (Romans 6:14).

I therefore believe he is suggesting that Christians can sin, but that our intention should be that we don't sin, and if we do sin, despite our efforts not to, then we can confess our sins in prayer to God and He will forgive us for those sins.

In 1 John 3:9, the apostle may indeed be using hyperbole...exaggeration to make a point.

But what point is he trying to make?

It is that when a man is born again, he makes a 180-degree turn away from sin, death, hell, and satan, towards righteousness, life, heaven, and God.

So that the following is true of him.

Pro 4:18, But the path of the just is as the shining light, that shineth more and more unto the perfect day.

I do believe that Jesus is the Christ (Messiah), so according to your preferred translation I am born again.

You must believe with your heart (Romans 10:10)...if you have a mere mental assent, it is not going to cut it. So, what is the test (as per 2 Corinthians 13:5)? Those who are born of God "cannot sin" (1 John 3:9).

In that case Jesus is a liar (unless you are wrong!):

John 10:
33) The Jews answered him, “We don’t stone you for a good work, but for blasphemy: because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
34) Jesus answered them, “Isn’t it written in your law, ‘I said, you are gods?’
35) If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture can’t be broken),
36) do you say of him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God?’

In claiming to be "the son that was given" He was claiming to be "The everlasting Father" (Isaiah 9:6).

John 14:28)
You heard how I told you, ‘I go away, and I come to you.’ If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I said ‘I am going to my Father;’ for the Father is greater than I.

Jesus is less than the Father as concerning His humanity and equal as concerning His Deity (John 5:18).

Rev 3:12)
He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will go out from there no more. I will write on him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from my God, and my own new name.

Yes, God has a God (Hebrews 1:8-9).

 

[justbyfaith]

God could not do it because he has always been immortal, meaning that he cannot possibly die.

In taking on a human form it became possible for God's Spirit to be separated from His body (which is physical death).

 

[Eternally Grateful]

This is basic Christian faith! The whole of the Bible is all about God redeeming mankind from sin and death, which could only be done by finding a substitute to pay the penalty for sin (death). No man could do it because they were all corrupted and had a sinful nature, inherited from Adam, and the redemption price for Adam, at the time a perfect man until he sinned, at which point he was corrupted and started dying, is the death of another perfect man. No Angel could be a substitute because they were not men. God could not do it because he has always been immortal, meaning that he cannot possibly die. God's solution was for his only begotten son, Jesus, to be changed from mortal spirit being to become a mortal man, and for him to die in Adam's place. Hence Jesus had to be sinless at the time of his death. Because Jesus was sinless God was just in resurrecting Jesus to life again, at which point he gave Jesus a new spritual nature, immortal like God himself has. Jesus now has the authority to resurrect everyone to life, which he will do, and everyone will have the opporunity or eternal life.

That is why we have hope. And we could not have any hope of eternal life if Jesus had been God!

I agree on most of what you say here,

I agree god could not do it because he could not die, but that is where we split

Phil 2 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, 7 but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross.

when Jesus said before Abraham was, he always existed (literally I I am. The name Jesus himself gave moses in the burning bus) he did not mean he was a man, or an angel or in some state of not yet being born, he meant he was god, he is the alpha and the omega, the creator of mankind all all creation which was made by and for him,

this same member of the trinity, took the form of a bond servant and came in the form of man, who COULD die, and humbled himself on the cross

this shut all lies about God up, the angels and Satan had no more argument, in that God himself came and he himself took the form of man and died on the cross.

again, if Jesus was not God we are still dead in our sin,

 

[justbyfaith]

Did God become a Man and live a life on this earth, and then die on the Cross for our sins; or did 1/3 of God do that? or, did a 2nd God do that?

 

[keithr]

I agree god could not do it because he could not die, but that is where we split

Phil 2 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,

That's a poor translation that gives the opposite meaning to what it should be! The WEB, for example, translates it as :

(Php 2:6) who, existing in the form of God, didn’t consider equality with God a thing to be grasped,

If Jesus wanted equality with God (Yahweh) then why was he doing God's will and not his own, why did he say that God was greater than he was, and why is he going to hand over the kingdom to God and be subjected to God?:

1 Corinthians 15:24-28 (WEB):
24) Then the end comes, when he will deliver up the Kingdom to God, even the Father; when he will have abolished all rule and all authority and power.
25) For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.
26) The last enemy that will be abolished is death.
27) For, “He put all things in subjection under his feet.” But when he says, “All things are put in subjection”, it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him.
28) When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.

These verses clearly distinguish between God and Jesus. It says that God made all things to be subjected to Jesus, except for God himself, and that Jesus will eventually deliver the perfected Kingdom to God, and be subject to God.

when Jesus said before Abraham was, he always existed (literally I I am. The name Jesus himself gave moses in the burning bus)

Not quite. First it says in Exodus 3:2 (WEB), "Yahweh’s angel appeared to him in a flame of fire out of the middle of a bush". So it wasn't God directly speaking to Moses, it was a messenger - which may have been, and most likely was, Jesus. After Moses asked what name hs should give to the Israelites, Jesus said to Moses, to paraphrase, "I am that I am. Say to the Israelites that 'I am' has sent you", but he then went on to say, as spokesman for God, that God's name (not Jesus' name) should forever be Yahweh (which is not 'I am'):

(Exodus 3:15 WEB) God said moreover to Moses, “You shall tell the children of Israel this, ‘Yahweh, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever, and this is my memorial to all generations.

When the Pharisees wanted to kill Jesus, it wasn't because he said "I am" in Aramaic, for that would not have meant anything to them. They wanted to kill them because he claimed to have been alive from before Abraham was even born, thereby in their view he was claiming to be something other than human. The Greek words translated as "I am" mean "I have existed" or "I have been".

John 8:56-59 (WEB):
56) Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day. He saw it, and was glad.”
57) The Jews therefore said to him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?”
58) Jesus said to them, “Most certainly, I tell you, before Abraham came into existence, I AM.”
59) Therefore they took up stones to throw at him, but Jesus was hidden, and went out of the temple, having gone through the middle of them, and so passed by.

 

[marks]

You are not your flesh.
You only live in it.
The real you is "born again". This is the eternal spirit that is "Made Righteous", and in "One with God".
Can you be One with God and have "indwelling sin"?
Thats impossible.
Can you be "made righteousn" and have "indwelling Sin"?
Can God live in you, the born again "temple of the Holy Spirit", and you have "indwelling sin"?
Can you go to heaven, and have "indwelling Sin"?
Can you be "as Jesus is, so are the born again in this word", and have "indwelling sin"?
Can you be "in Christ" and have "indwelling sin"?
Can you comprehend that the Apostle's were often preaching to the lost, and in this case the verses are not directed at the born again?
See, Justbyfaith can't comprehend this, but i feel that you can......and will.

That's the whole point. If any be in Christ, he is a new creature. Pure and simple!

Much love!

 

[justbyfaith]

Exo 3:13, And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them?
Exo 3:14, And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
Exo 3:15, And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

 

[justbyfaith]

The Father is in fact an eternal Spirit who inhabits eternity; and in descending into time, He did not cease to dwell in eternity; for it is the nature of eternity that if anyone dwells there, they are there eternally.

So, when the Father descended and took on an added nature of human flesh, He also stayed behind in eternity. The Person who stayed behind in eternity is the former self of the One who has descended to take on an added nature of human flesh. That Person inhabits eternity and is the Father.

The Person who descended and took on an added nature of human flesh, will submit to the Lordship of His former self when all is said and done from the perspective of time.

So, you see, it is not saying that the Person who inhabits eternity is not the same Person as Him who has descended to take on an added nature of human flesh.

It is merely saying that He who inhabits eternity will continue to be the Lord throughout eternity.

And there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5); even the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). Yet, no one can say that Jesus is the Lord, except by the Spirit of truth (1 Corinthians 12:3 (kjv)). And, Jesus is the Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).

I will leave you to make your own conclusions on that. But I think that the truth is clearly before you as to whether Jesus and the Father are separate Persons or whether they are the same Person, yet distinct from one another.

Because clearly, the Son is distinct from the Father (while they are the same Spirit) in that the Son exists in the flesh while the Father exists as a Spirit without flesh, inhabiting eternity. And the Son, by definition, is the Father come in human flesh.

 

[Behold]

Anyone who is begotten again can still commit sins, 3:9) Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin;

Notice how you contradicted your own theology, using these 2 verses you quoted.

Nothing new.

 

[Behold]

And again, the point in quoting Romans 7:18 is that we are our flesh...

Paul says our flesh is Dead, and to reckon it so, because its "crucified with Christ".
You dont, and thats a spiritual issue that you have had for how many years now?
Its a deep one, and i dont see it changing.

 

[justbyfaith]

Paul says our flesh is Dead, and to reckon it so, because its "crucified with Christ".
You don't <fify>, and that's <fify> a spiritual issue that you have had for how many years now?
Its a deep one, and I don't <fify> see it changing.

More lies coming from you.

I have indeed reckoned my flesh dead; and sin dwelling in my flesh.

Is it not the very thing that I have taught since coming on these boards; that the element of sin, while it is not eradicated from us (and therefore we cannot rightly say that we have no sin), can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) so that it no longer has any say over our behaviour (Romans 6:14)?

I consider that your post is also a tactic of the enemy to try and get me to fall; for it is written,

1Co 10:12, Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall.

I don't know if you have offered yourself to the enemy so that you might be used in such a manner or if you are unwittingly being used of him; but for future reference, when you challenge a person's walk so that they will defend it, you are setting them up for a fall.

And, if you are on the Lord's side, I don't think that you would want to be a reason for someone falling.

 

[keithr]

In Romans 6:14, we find that born again believers are not under the law.

Christians may not be condemned under the law, because God forgives us, but that does not mean that they do not still commit sins (and if we love God we should keep his commandments/laws).

We are not sinless (1 John 1:8)...but we can be perfect (Hebrews 10:14).

(Heb 10:14) For by one offering he has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.​

By one offering he has also redeemed all of mankind, but they haven't been redeemed yet! They will be redeemed when they are resurrected. Likewise Christians will be perfect forever, but they are not perfect yet. As Paul said:

(1Co 9:27) But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.
(1Ti 4:1 WEB) But the Spirit says expressly that in later times some will fall away from the faith, paying attention to seducing spirits and doctrines of demons,

So Christians can fall away from the faith and be rejected, therefore proving that they are not yet perfect.

Yes, God has a God (Hebrews 1:8-9).

(Heb 1:2) [God] has at the end of these days spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom also he made the worlds.
(Heb 1:8) But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever. The scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your Kingdom.
(Heb 1:9) You have loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness above your fellows.”

Yes, this is clealy God (Yahweh) talking to his son (Jesus) and calling him a god, and saying that He (Yahweh) is Jesus' god, and is superior to Jesus. This is in perfect harmony with Jesus saying that his/the Father (Yahweh) is his god.

In claiming to be "the son that was given" He was claiming to be "The everlasting Father" (Isaiah 9:6).

Literal translations (LSV, YLT) and some other translations, such as Darby, translate it as "Father of Eternity". Nevertheless:

(Rev 21:5) He who sits on the throne [Jesus and God] said, ...
(Rev 21:7) He who overcomes, I will give him these things. I will be his God, and he will be my son.

(Rev 22:1) He showed me a river of water of life, clear as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb,