where does the Bible alone say Joseph is the legal father?
Are you utterly unfamiliar with Mans Laws?
Did you not have a LEGAL daddy according to Mans Laws?
Were you raised in the household of some random man?
Do you have NO document stating a specific man is your daddy?
Do you File a Census and NAME random people as your children?
Are you NOT familiar with Jewish Law?
Are you NOT familiar with Gentile Laws?
Gentile Laws; (particularly Western laws) ...
- Engagement: a verbal agreement between a man and a woman agreeing they will Marry.
-Wedding: a Religious “LEGAL” or Civil “LEGAL” ceremony of fulling the Verbal Agreement to Marry.
Jewish Laws;
- Betrothal (ie engagement)... A LEGAL “contract” Between a Groom and the Brides DADDY, that the Groom WILL MARRY the DADDY’S DAUGHTER.
- THAT CONTRACT, can only BE BROKEN BY Another Contract of Agreement TO DISSOLVED the “engagement”.
THAT BREAKING of the “engagement/Betrothal”....IS officially BROKEN, BY an ISSUING of A “DIVORCE DEGREE” !
Unlike Gentile LAWS... In Jewish Law...the “Engaged/Betrothed” couple are TREATED as ALREADY MARRIED, but do not LIVE together, do not engage in Sexual activity....THE ARE TRUE to their Commitment, TO finalize their Commitment AT A WEDDING ceremony.
Joseph made a COMMITMENT to Mary’s daddy, to MARRY her.
When Joseph was Visited by an Angel and told, SHE was with child...Joseph first thought about, DIVORCING her quietly.
The Angel Visiting Joesph CONTINUED speaking to Joseph of Mary’s circumstance, WAS NOT DO TO MARY being “unfaithful” to Joseph.
Joseph reconsidered his thought of “DIVORCING” Mary...
And DID NOT “divorce” Mary.
Joseph and Mary immediately (rather than WAITING the customary Year LONG “engagement” period)...WEDDED.
Joseph AGREED to NOT have a (customary) sexual relationship WITH His WIFE on the day they were WED, but RATHER:
Joseph AGREED to NOT have a sexual relationship WITH Mary UNTIL AFTER Mary delivered the child, AND the Jewish Lawful custom of Marys purification (after child delivery).
When YOU KNOW NOT the FACTS, you are NOT capable of basing your OPINON and BELIEFS ON the FACTS.
You Wondering “IF” Joseph was Jesus’ Legal father, simply shows you have no concept of what legality of mans law means.
Mary and Joseph were Contractually Committed to become wedded.
Mary and Joseph Contractually Became wedded BEFORE the birth of Jesus.
Mary and Joseph expressly were Revealed as Husband and Wife.
Mary and Joseph expressly were Revealed SLEEPING in the same space.
You can hardly “exalt” Mary to the pedestal level you do....IF Mary was SLEEPING with a man in the SAME space, Registering in the Census as LIVING in the SAME household, to a man she was NOT Wedded to!
And your “exalting” Mary to the pedestal level you do....Being AFTER Jesus’ Birth, and AFTER the Jewish Lawful purification time-line....
You have Mary DENYING her Husband Joseph the ability to fulfill Gods Commandment of multiplying and having children with “his seed and her seed”....
Pretty FORWARD of YOU, to DECIDE, to TEACH (long after Mary is dead and buried)....That Mary WAS a horrible WIFE to her Husband, by DENYING Joseph the ability to Multiply and Have Children of their own.
Seems, when MARY was ALIVE, She herself would have made that claim for herself....But, now that she is dead and buried....SHE has NO WAY, to DEFEND her own self, as BEING a Faithful and Dutiful Wife to Joseph.
Very Disturbing and Dishonorable to Mary.