I pose a set of simple and imo concrete logic that might inspire significant discussion among the membership.
An Omniscient (all-knowing) God by definition means that free will can not actually exist.
A person is presented with a Choice of A, B or C
But God knows, infallibly, unerringly with 100% certainty that option A is going to be the choice.
That being the case it MUST be impossible for option B and C to be chosen, for otherwise that would mean God was wrong, fallible and imperfect.
If B an C are not in fact possible options, then there was never a real choice to begin with. Hence, there is no free will because the result of all actions and choices are known to God before they happen and therefore all alternative choices are not actual possibilities.
This is a tricky argument for many Christians to face up to and they will frequently invoke the "Divine Default" saying "it just is" or "God just knows" without being able to quantify or rationally explain any of it.
Discuss
omniscience - "
the quality of having or seeming to have unlimited knowledge" (Cambridge dictionary)
The problem with the original argument here is the assumption by the writer that a quality of Omniscience would negate free will.
One may respond to this by asking
what proofs or EVIDENCE is offered that the quality of omniscience does, in fact, deny free will.
None is offered because those of us who have limited knowledge, meaning all of us, cannot by our nature discern whether the statement is true or not. Therefore the entire proposition begins with a false conjecture - a really badly phrased argument.
The next statement is also false - that "
God knows, infallibly, unerringly with 100% certainty that some option is certain". It's false because of its own ILLOGIC. If, according to the argument, that God presents choices of A, B, or C is this not an example of an offered CHOICE? So I ask - if there isn't a choice, meaning free will to choose, then why would God offer choices in the first place? The question presented in this case is illogical and NEGATES the entire argument.
The writer of the first post is obviously unacquainted with the process of logic or how to argue for it or against it.
Where is Mr. Spock when we need him?
Let us continue anyway...
infallible - "
incapable of error in doctrines touching faith or morals" (Merriam-Webster dictionary)
Again the writer of the 1st post trespasses upon the quicksand of illogic and ties his own argument in knots when he writes, "
it must be impossible for options B or C to be chosen, for otherwise God would be wrong, fallible and imperfect"
We're picking at nits here, but we do so because that's the path the writer of the 1st post has 'chosen' for development of his ideas.
Omniscience is by common definition a quality of God. Infallibility is by definition a quality of HUMAN understanding.
For instance,
the Pope would not consider himself to be infallible if he were married.
In the case of the Holy Father an outside source could disprove an official statement or Bull.....turning it into bovine excrement.
In the case of God there is NO outside source that can disprove anything God states - according to the aforementioned quality of omniscience. Therefore the second statement about divine infallibility is also illogical.
What a tangled web we weave when first we practice to deceive.
Here we go with the next statement: "
there's no free will because the actions and choices are known to God before they happen and therefore all alternative choices are not actual possibilities."
Again we return to the unavoidable observation that humans don't have a real handle on omniscience because we have no proofs or evidence to prove it or its actions. One cannot shoot an arrow into the air and come close to hitting a target if one is BLIND. The statement concerning alternative choices is false simply because detailed human knowledge of divine omniscience is quite literally unknown. A human would have to BE omniscient to correctly SEE any quality of omniscience. Since no human possesses such a quality the supposition cannot even be expressed correctly. This is an example of circular logic which attempts to draw a straight line and ends up in the curves.
What have we been smoking?
The final statement is a cocky attempt to challenge Christians to participate in the same sort of convoluted pretentious illogic that the questioner has vomited upon these pages. He's puked upon our dinner table and is asking us to lap it up like dogs.
We cannot respond because we will not respond.
We will not respond because we have appropriated logic based upon choice and free will. Some of us try, though.
The author of this thread blows it off because he has no intention whatsoever of making a free will choice to consider the Biblical argument.
According to the LAW (of Moses) stated in Deuteronomy 30:19 humans HAVE been given a choice.
"
I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live"
Whether God is omniscient or not is a matter of human argument, limited understanding, definition, philosophical mumbo-jumbo and DOGMA.
WHAT IS TRUE and totally logical is that God is giving us, all of us, A CHOICE. The choice is to live by God's LAW and God's ways. The result of our choice will be either life or death. God has given us a CHOICE.
For this commandment I give you today is not too difficult for you or beyond your reach. (Deuteronomy 30:11)
Contrary to what most churches teach, God's LAW is NOT impossible to keep. Can one live an entire day without stealing something or killing someone or lying to one's boss at work? It IS possible and everyone reading these words knows it. What is also possible is that one can CHOOSE to lie, cheat, steal and murder. The consequences are stated in the LAW both the law of God and the law of man.
What's being attempted here is either to prove God is unjust or that man is totally depraved. Neither is true because the LAW proves there's a choice offered by God to man.
God is not fair, but He IS just.
Fairness implies subjective conditions. Not all people live lives the same as all others - what we call fairness. Some are healthy and some are handicapped. Some are wise and others are fools. Some are normal and others are politicians.
Justice implies an objective unchangeable application of LAW to all. In other words, God throws a pair of dice out onto the earth. Sometimes the dice comes up snake eyes and sometimes it comes up something else. (see Matthew 13 and the parable of the sower)
God the omniscient mercifully creates situations to allow men, who so choose, to be self-blinded fools.
"
This is the judgment, that LIGHT has come into the world, but men hated the light because their deeds were evil." (John 3:19)
This entire argument is based upon the idea that man can justify his own SIN and WICKEDNESS by declaring to the heavens above and hell beneath that "
God made me do it (SIN)."
If God makes people SIN, why then would He die on the cross to pay the penalty for their evil choices?
There is something more going on here than self-justification, false doctrine and obtuse philosophy.
There IS a choice.
Choose wisely.
that's me, hollering from the choir loft...