Before Abraham Existed I AM

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Wrangler

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Notice that when MOSES went to the burning bush....>He met God, who said His name is..."I AM, that I AM">

He tells them His real Identity...'" I AM"

Identity is not I am but existence, as Mark pointed out. Worse, your own post tells the story 5 Words <> 2 words. Jesus is NOT saying what God said.
 

marks

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@Pierac and I believe what Jesus said there, just not what Christendom is imposing as the interpretation of what it means.
What He said was this.

Before Abraham did exist, I do exist. Before Abraham was (past tense of "to be"), I am (present tense of "to be").

Much love!
 
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marks

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What Jesus said and what God said regarding their existence are not the same. Do you grasp that much?
That's not what I'm talking about. I still think you aren't realizing what my actual assertion is. Can you restate for me what I've been saying?

That Jesus declares an existence that is at the same time "now", and "before Abraham"? Before Abraham was (past tense of the verb "to be), I am (present tense of the verb "to be"). Before Abraham did exist, I do exist.

Much love!
 
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TLHKAJ

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So you saying the begger whom says I AM .... the same words as Jesus spoke in the very Book of John " ego eimi!" is also GOD
The fact that Jesus made the declaration that He was before Abraham was ....is impossible for a mere human. And it was never said of the beggar that he was the Word made flesh, and the Word was God who was in the beginning with God. We all use the words "I am..." and yet, we are not God. When God says "I Am" He is making a statement of eternal immortality, without beginning or end, but who IS the beginning and the end, the author and finisher, the Alpha and Omega ...the One who has created all things.
 
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TLHKAJ

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That's not what I'm talking about. I still think you aren't realizing what my actual assertion is. Can you restate for me what I've been saying?

That Jesus declares an existance that is at the same time "now", and "before Abraham"? Before Abraham was (past tense of the verb "to be, I am (present tense of the verb "to be"). Before Abraham did exist, I do exist.

Much love!
Brother, what we are witnessing is a denial of the true Lord Jesus Christ ....a falling away (from the gospel of Christ). Although sad, we shouldn't be too shocked.
 
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farouk

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The fact that Jesus made the declaration that He was before Abraham was ....is impossible for a mere human. And it was never said of the beggar that he was the Word made flesh, and the Word was God who was in the beginning with God. We all use the words "I am..." and yet, we are not God. When God says "I Am" He is making a statement of eternal immortality, without beginning or end, but who IS the beginning and the end, the author and finisher, the Alpha and Omega ...the One who has created all things.
@TLHKAJ The reference there to Alpha and Omega in relation to the Great I AM is very apt indeed.
 
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marks

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The fact that Jesus made the declaration that He was before Abraham was ....is impossible for a mere human. And it was never said of the beggar that he was the Word made flesh, and the Word was God who was in the beginning with God. We all use the words "I am..." and yet, we are not God. When God says "I Am" He is making a statement of eternal immortality, without beginning or end, but who IS the beginning and the end, the author and finisher, the Alpha and Omega ...the One who has created all things.
Just imagine, were I to make that same claim!

Before Abraham Lincoln was, I am! I can just imagine how they'd all look at me!

"It is because you, a man, make yourself to be God!" They understood!

"How did you ever see Abraham, you aren't even 50 years old!?" The didn't understand.

"Before Abraham was, I am." That's how.

Much love!
 
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Pierac

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The 'audience' does not have ears to hear.

No... They do not... But it's so easy to make them look.... like Marks from his last post... Biblically Stupid!!!

Guess it must be part of God's plan... as all things are of God!!!
Paul
 

Pierac

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Exactly!!:)

Exactly what? You must be Jim Acosta from the biblical CNN on this thread.... Making comments out of your diarrhea mouth, with no scripture to back up your point of view???? What scripture do you think gives you the RIGHT to say Exactly!

Exactly What???


Silly child, please post some MEAT of the word... or just eat your Captain Church
Crunch ... Please!!!
Paul
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Jesus was identifying Himself as Messiah, as God come down from Heaven.

Notice that when MOSES went to the burning bush....>He met God, who said His name is..."I AM, that I AM">
That is God saying that to MOSES whom the Jews adore to this day, and His law and commandments.

So, God, manifested in the Flesh, come down from Glory, and is a walking talking human who knows what they are thinking and want to hear, and do not want to hear. So, Because Jesus is THE Truth, ... John 14:6, and being God "who cannot lie"...>He tells them His real Identity...'" I AM", same as God said it to their hero, Moses.
This literally made them lose control., and later, Jesus was looking down from the Cross into these same eyes who were saying...."oh yeah, if you are He, the Messiah, come down from those Nails".
And God the Son on the Cross, said to God the Father in Glory....>"forgiven them, for they know not what they do".

the Person Who Appeared to Moses in the Buring Bush, is "Malakh YHWH"; literally the "Messenger of YHWH", or, "The One Sent by YHWH". It is clear from Exodus 3, that this "Malakh", is Himself, YHWH and Elohim. Who said to Moses, I AM WHO I AM", that is, "The Eternal God", as the LXX has it.
 
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ScottA

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There has been quite a bit of discussion on John 8:58. What happened to this verse as to confuse so many? Let's start in Exodus.

KJV Exo 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

Now we shall read the same verse from the Greek Septuagint

Septuagint Exo 3:14 και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην [εγω ειμι ο ων] και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ [ο ων] απεσταλκεν με προς υμας
Note the two separate Greek words used for 'am'

Concordant Literal Version Exo 3:14 Then Elohim spoke to Moses: I shall come to be just as I am coming to be. And He said: Thus shall you say to the sons of Israel, I-Shall-Come-to-Be has sent me to you.
Now when translated literally you get a whole different look. What happened to the other I am's?

The Hebrew Bible uses the word (hâyâh H1961) in the place of "Am" which is a verb meaning to exist, to be.
Check the Strongs' number.

Clearly Jesus did not say (εγω ειμι ο ων) nor did he state (ο ων), in John 8:58. Jesus spoke the words (εγω ειμι) just like other people in the bible who are not God. So just what was Jesus saying?

But what about the great "I Am him" statement of Jesus? Especially that classic one in John 8:58 where Jesus says, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born I am"?

Surely here Jesus makes the same claim for himself that Jehovah God made back in Exodus 3 where the LORD says to Moses at the burning Bush "I Am Who I Am." Surely Jesus is claiming to be the I AM of the Old Testament as Trinitarian belief asserts?

Now here is something very obvious that they never told me in church. This expression from Jesus' lips "I am" (Greek ego eimi) occurs throughout the Gospel of John and in no other text in John can it mean I AM, the God of the Old Testament.

Go back to John 4:25-26 for instance. The woman at the well said to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us." And Jesus said to her, "I who speak with you am he." You will notice that in most Bibles that word he is in italics. This means that the translators have correctly supplied a word in English that is not in the Greek but that nevertheless makes the intended sense quite clear. Here Jesus says to the woman - in the context of her question about the Messiah - that he is the Messiah, the Christ. "I who speak to you am he." In the Greek it reads ego eimi. Jesus simply says I am he, the Messiah. Definitely not “I am is the one speaking to you!”

In John 9 Jesus heals the blind man. Is this really the beggar who used to sit groping in the dark? Some people said, "Yes, it's him all right." Other said, "No, he just looks like him." But the beggar says, " ego eimi!" And the translators have no problem writing, "I am the one." So why aren't the translators consistent? Why not capitalize what this man says as I AM? Because it is clear that he is not claiming to be the God of the Old Testament. Saying "I am" (ego eimi) does not make somebody God in the Bible!

What Jesus is saying is simply “Before Abraham was born, I am he,” that is, "I am the Messiah."

Notice the context in John 8:56 where Jesus says, "Abraham rejoiced to see my day." By faith Abraham looked forward and saw the coming Messiah before he came in history. He believed the promise that God would send the Promised One. On the other hand these Jews did not believe that Jesus was their Messiah. They were claiming to be Abraham's descendents. Jesus said that this was impossible for they did not recognize him as their Messiah. But Jesus asserts that even before Abraham was born, he is the One who was always in God's plan. This Abraham believe and saw. The Messiah preexisted in God's plan and therefore in Abraham's believing mind, because he trusted the promise of God. Jesus positively did not say, before Abraham was, I was." Also, Jesus did not say, “Before Abraham was, I AM WHAT I AM."

The conclusion is inevitable. Jesus’ claim "Before Abraham was born, I am he" is the straightforward claim that he is the long promised one, the Messiah, the One in question. Jesus is the Savior in God's promise even before Abraham was born.

The Jewish leaders were very well aware of what Jesus was saying about himself! Jesus Was not claiming to be God but the Son of God as Shown in John 19:6. They give the very reason they wanted Him dead!

John 19:6 When the chief priests therefore and officers saw him, they cried out, saying, Crucify him, crucify him. Pilate saith unto them, Take ye him, and crucify him: for I find no fault in him. 7 The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God.

Jesus, NEVER claimed to be God! BUT... Jesus did claim to be the Son of God.... What does that mean???

Son of God - This title for Jesus has been given meanings and attributes that were never intended. People have erroneously used the human father-son relationship to describe this title of Jesus’. They have thought that since a human son has the actual essence (made of the same matter) of his father, that therefore, this title implies that Jesus being the Son of God is of the same essence of God. This conclusion will lead you right into the Doctrine of the Trinity. This is the formula they adopted at the Council of Nicaea in 325 AD when they said:

"The Son is of the same substance as the Father."

It was at this council that Jesus was first made God. The Holy Spirit interestingly enough was not included in the formula. It was included fifty-six years...
I marvel at this kind of study, and even appreciated it. I do. The problem is, it leads one to believe that what is established by language study, is the end-all of what is true.

However, according to the scriptures, that is not at all true--but rather that the "words are spirit" and "must be spiritually discerned", because all language has been "confused" by God for a reason--and the end-all of "all truth" is rather sent by the Spirit. And who is it that has sent the Spirit?

But what does it matter if one says Jesus is God and another says He is not, if the Father and the Son are One?

It only matters for the telling of what is written. Which is to say, all that comes forth from God, is of God. So what--so what if God sent one born of the flesh among those also born of the flesh and created? It matters not, but only matters that it is He who has done it. And like the Centurion who did not need for Christ to come to his house because it was enough that He ordered that his servant should be healed--are we so foolish as to debate what God has ordered? Indeed we are.

Moreover, our doubt and our examination is toward God, for it is He who sends all who are sent.

Even so, if God sent a cake or mere bread rather than a man--so what? To eat it--is to receive God.​
 
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Pierac

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@TLHKAJ The reference there to Alpha and Omega in relation to the Great I AM is very apt indeed.

Yes it is... if you actually knew what you were talking about...

I am the Alpha and the Omega.


This is referenced to Revelation 1:8. But Revelation 1:8 is talking about The Almighty, Revelation 22:12 is not using this title for Jesus but for God again. If we read Revelation 22:6 it tells us who the subject is, "The Lord, the God of prophetic spirits." Jesus does say in Revelation 1:17 that, "I am the first and the last." We shall examine what he meant by that statement.

Just because the same title is used to describe two people does not mean that those two people are one. As we can easily read… David called King Saul "My Lord " but that does not make Saul God (1 Samuel 24:8).

Israel’s Judges were called "saviors" but that does not make them and Jesus one person? (Nehemiah 9:27).

Jeroboam the Second of Israel is called "Israel’s savior," but that does not make him Jesus? (2 Kings 13:5)

Before we discuss these verses it would benefit us to understand John’s view of God.

Examples:

John 17:3
"Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent."

Revelation 1:6
"Who (Jesus) has made us into a kingdom, priests for his God and Father."

John 20:17
"But go to my brothers and tell them, "I am going to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God."

In these verses John does not consider Jesus to be God in any way. For John, Jesus has a God. John also does not believe Jesus to be omniscient even after his resurrected state. Revelation 1:1 says:

"The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to him."

Even after his resurrection Jesus is not omniscient. God still gives him revelations. Emphasis on God gives him. Now we will look at Revelation 1:17 with the correct background of John’s thinking, and not with a mind set on making Jesus God at all costs.

It is obvious that God Almighty is the first and the last, but how is Jesus also the first and the last? Jesus is the first because he is the firstborn in two ways. One, he is the firstborn of God, which to the Jews implied that as the firstborn you are entitled to be the heir of your father, which Jesus is (Hebrews 1:2). Also according to Strong’s Greek Dictionary it means foremost in importance, which Jesus certainly is. This also corresponds with Psalms 89: 28 - 30.
Secondly, Jesus is the firstborn from the dead to be resurrected, which is what Jesus is speaking about in Revelation 1:18 which follows his statement that he is the first and the last. It reads:

"I am the first and the last, the one who lives. Once I was dead, but now I am alive forever."

This is also is in agreement with Colossians 1: 18. Jesus is the last because when he comes again it will be the end of the present age, and he will be in effect the last one to enter this world while it is still under the influence of Satan. He will then usher in the Messianic kingdom of God

Come on farouk... You can do better... really... trying to use what you hear in church... words like Alpha and Omega.... and then claim some superior truth that no one sees... You post as a Child!!!
Try harder...
Paul
 

farouk

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Yes it is... if you actually knew what you were talking about...

I am the Alpha and the Omega.


This is referenced to Revelation 1:8. But Revelation 1:8 is talking about The Almighty, Revelation 22:12 is not using this title for Jesus but for God again. If we read Revelation 22:6 it tells us who the subject is, "The Lord, the God of prophetic spirits." Jesus does say in Revelation 1:17 that, "I am the first and the last." We shall examine what he meant by that statement.

Just because the same title is used to describe two people does not mean that those two people are one. As we can easily read… David called King Saul "My Lord " but that does not make Saul God (1 Samuel 24:8).

Israel’s Judges were called "saviors" but that does not make them and Jesus one person? (Nehemiah 9:27).

Jeroboam the Second of Israel is called "Israel’s savior," but that does not make him Jesus? (2 Kings 13:5)

Before we discuss these verses it would benefit us to understand John’s view of God.

Examples:

John 17:3
"Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent."

Revelation 1:6
"Who (Jesus) has made us into a kingdom, priests for his God and Father."

John 20:17
"But go to my brothers and tell them, "I am going to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God."

In these verses John does not consider Jesus to be God in any way. For John, Jesus has a God. John also does not believe Jesus to be omniscient even after his resurrected state. Revelation 1:1 says:

"The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to him."

Even after his resurrection Jesus is not omniscient. God still gives him revelations. Emphasis on God gives him. Now we will look at Revelation 1:17 with the correct background of John’s thinking, and not with a mind set on making Jesus God at all costs.

It is obvious that God Almighty is the first and the last, but how is Jesus also the first and the last? Jesus is the first because he is the firstborn in two ways. One, he is the firstborn of God, which to the Jews implied that as the firstborn you are entitled to be the heir of your father, which Jesus is (Hebrews 1:2). Also according to Strong’s Greek Dictionary it means foremost in importance, which Jesus certainly is. This also corresponds with Psalms 89: 28 - 30.
Secondly, Jesus is the firstborn from the dead to be resurrected, which is what Jesus is speaking about in Revelation 1:18 which follows his statement that he is the first and the last. It reads:

"I am the first and the last, the one who lives. Once I was dead, but now I am alive forever."

This is also is in agreement with Colossians 1: 18. Jesus is the last because when he comes again it will be the end of the present age, and he will be in effect the last one to enter this world while it is still under the influence of Satan. He will then usher in the Messianic kingdom of God

Come on farouk... You can do better... really... trying to use what you hear in church... words like Alpha and Omega.... and then claim some superior truth that no one sees... You post as a Child!!!
Try harder...
Paul
Clearly Alpha and Omega in revelation refers to the Lord Jesus Christ, the eternal Son of God.
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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Hebrews 1:6, The Father says to WORSHIP Jesus Christ.

“και παν κτισμα ο εστιν εν τω ουρανω και εν τη γη και υποκατω της γης και επι της θαλασσης α εστιν και τα εν αυτοις παντα ηκουσα λεγοντας τω καθημενω επι του θρονου και τω αρνιω η ευλογια και η τιμη και η δοξα και το κρατος εις τους αιωνας των αιωνων” (Revelation 5:13-14)

"And ALL of the Creation, which is in the heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and on the sea, and all things that are in them, heard I saying, to Him Who sits on the throne, and unto the Lamb, be ALL the blessing, and ALL the honour, and ALL the glory, and ALL the might, for ever and ever. And the four living creatures said, Amen. And the elders fell down and worshipped." (so emphasized in the Greek)

Note the words, “τω καθημενω επι του θρονου και τω αρνιω”, “to Him Who sits on the throne AND to the Lamb”, where the Greek conjunction, “και”, is used for “sameness”, with absolute equality. Thus, we read in chapter 22, verse 1: “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very important, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”, where “του θρονου” (the throne), is in the singular number. God and the Lamb, as “distinct” Persons, are united in Their Rule. This absolute unity, can also be seen in chapter 11:15, “And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ; and He shall Reign for ever and ever”. Note the end, “He shall Reign”, which in the Greek is, “βασιλευσει”, which is in the singular number. It can refer to “His Christ”, or, to “our Lord and of His Christ”, the latter no doubt being the correct meaning, as seen from the main passage from chapter 5, and 22. Let no one suppose that there is some “subordination” with Jesus Christ to the Father, post-Incarnation, as this is proven as completely wrong from these passages in Revelation.

These passages are some of the strongest and clearest in the Holy Bible, that speak of the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. It also shows His equality with the Father, and further teaches that there are Two Persons in Scripture, Who are equally Almighty God. We read, "to Him Who (Gk, toi) sits on the throne, and to the (Gk, toi) Lamb". Where it is very clear from the Greek text, that two DISTINCT Persons are spoken of, God the Father, and God the Son (the Lamb).

Verse 13 speaks of "every created thing which is in the heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and on the sea, and all things that are in them", which is nothing less than the entirety of the human race, "every created thing", with no exceptions. Here the entire universe ascribes "THE blessing, and THE honour, and THE glory, and THE Might", where in the Greek text, the "article [the]" is repeated with each word, signifying, "whatever blessing, and honour, and glory, and might", there is in the entire universe, as in ALL blessings, honour, glory, might, is here said to belong "to Him that sits on the throne", which is God the Father in this case. So, let us be clear here what is being taught; that, ALL, "THE blessing, and ALL THE honour, and ALL THE glory, and ALL THE might", are said EQUALLY to belong to God the Father, and God the Son. In the Book of Isaiah we read these words: "to whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be like? (46:5), and in 42:8, "I am Jehovah, that is my name; and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise unto graven images". It is very clear from these passages, that Almighty God would never "share" His glory, praise with another, nor can He ever be compared with, or made equal with anyone. And yet, in the passage in Revelation, this is exactly what the Apostle John, writing under the guiding of the Holy Spirit, has done! It would be nothing short of blasphemy, for the Apostle John, to have written as he did in Revelation 5:13-14, IF, Jesus Christ was a created being, as some, like the Jehovah's Witnesses falsely teach. How can the Almighty Creator God, be EVER "share" the " blessings, and honour, and glory, and might", with a someone Whom He created? Can the Creator be said to be EQUAL with His creation, IF as some blaspheme, that Jesus is a created being? Jesus Himself says in the Gospel of John, "My Father works until now, and I work" (5:17), which the Jews rightly understood as Jesus "making Himself equal (Gk, isos, "the same in quality". J H Thayer, Greek-English lexicon; "to claim for one's self the nature, rank, authority, which belongs to God, Jn. v.18", p.307. Thayer was a Unitarian, who, like the Jehovah's Witnesses, denied the Deity of Jesus Christ) to God (toi theoi)", because He had called God, "His OWN Father" (verse 18). Thus is their relationship. And in verse 23, Jesus says something that ONLY someone who was coequal to the Father could ever have said. We read: "That everyone (all humans) should honour (Gk, time, "worship, esteem, honour") the Son, even as (Gk, kathos, "just as, even as", indicating comparision) they honour the Father. He that does not honour the Son, does not honour the Father Who sent Him". Can a created being demand that SAME honour that God the Father is given? Regardless of highly exalted Jesus Christ might have been, if He were a created being, there is NO way that He could ever have used language as He does here, without blaspheming. Even as the Incarnate Son of God, Jesus Christ demanded EQUAL “HONOUR” with the Father, though He says that “The Father is greater than I” (John 14:28). Here is indeed a Great Mystery!

John then goes on to say in verse 14, “And the elders fell down and WORSHIPPED”. This “worship” is here directed to BOTH, “to Him Who sits on the throne, AND unto the Lamb”, which further shows that Jesus Christ, post-Incarnation, is 100% COEQUAL, with God the Father, and in the Godhead, His Deity is no “less”, in any way, than the Father. The fact that BOTH are WORSHIPPED TOGETHER, can only be understood to Their being also COESSENTIAL

Also, in Revelation 1:17, and 2:8, we read of Jesus Christ say of Himself, that He is, "the first and the last". Thayer says of the words, " ὁ πρῶτος καί ὁ ἔσχατος, i.e. the eternal One" (page, 554). Which can ONLY mean that Jesus Christ is UNCREATED, and ETERNAL. Add to this the words of Jesus Christ in chapter 22, “I am THE Alpha and THE Omega, THE First and THE Last, THE Beginning and THE End”. In Isaiah 44:6, we read, “Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am THE First and I am THE Last; besides me there is no god”. It is not only impossible for Jesus to have said these words about Himself, IF, as some teach, that He is no more than a mere “created” being, but, it would also be the highest form of blasphemy. However, we are confident from what we read in the Infallible Word of God, that there can be no doubt, that Jesus Christ, IS indeed ALMIGHTY GOD, without beginning or end, as are God the Father, and God the Holy Spirit.



Jesus Christ IS The Great I AM, Yahweh, Almighty God.
 
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TLHKAJ

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Exactly what? You must be Jim Acosta from the biblical CNN on this thread.... Making comments out of your diarrhea mouth, with no scripture to back up your point of view???? What scripture do you think gives you the RIGHT to say Exactly!

Exactly What???


Silly child, please post some MEAT of the word... or just eat your Captain Church
Crunch ... Please!!!
Paul
You ignored my meatier post.
Your derogatory remarks are very telltale of your character, or lack thereof. I don't care to engage with you any further. I will only post the truth and discuss the truth with ones who value the truth.
(Ignore....)
 
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Pierac

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I marvel at this kind of study, and even appreciated it. I do. The problem is, it leads one to believe that what is established by language study, is the end-all of what is true.

However, according to the scriptures, that is not at all true--but rather that the "words are spirit" and "must be spiritually discerned", because all language has been "confused" by God for a reason.

But what does it matter if one says Jesus is God and another says He is not, it the Father and the Son are One?

It only matters for the telling of what is written. Which is to say, all that comes forth from God, is of God. So what--so what if God sent one born of the flesh among those also born of the flesh and created? It matters not, but only matters that it is He who has done it. And like the Centurion who did not need for Christ to come to his house because it was enough that He ordered that his servant should be healed--are we so foolish as to debate what God has ordered? Indeed we are.

Moreover, our doubt and our examination is toward God, for it is He who sends all who are sent.

Even so, if God sent a cake or mere bread rather than a man--so what? To eat it--is to receive God.​
Then you are at the beginning of your journey at this kind of Study...

Get your Hebrew out Boy...


NASB Ecc 3:10 I have seen the task which God has given the sons of men with which to occupy themselves. 11 He has made everything appropriate in its time. He has also set eternity5769 in their heart, yet so that man will not find out the work which God has done from the
beginning even to the end.

KJV Ecc 3:10 I have seen the travail, which God hath given to the sons of men to be exercised in it. 11 He hath made every thing beautiful in his time: also he hath set the world5769 in their heart, so that no man can find out the work that God maketh from the beginning to the end.

H5769 עלם עולם ‛ôlâm ‛ôlâm
o-lawm', o-lawm'
From H5956; properly concealed, that is, the vanishing point; generally time out of mind

Translation: Ecc 3:10 So God makes everything proper and appropriate for His Plan, but He has put obscurity in their hearts.. so that, or in order that they (MAN) cannot know or understand what it is that He is doing to them in this human existence we call life.

You seem to see more than most... Yet, do you see there is no Heaven or Hell... but only the coming 1000yr kingdom of our Lord and King! How long will Jesus reign...

1Co 15:21 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead also came through a man. For just as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive. But each in his own order: Christ, the firstfruits; then when Christ comes, those who belong to him. Then comes the end, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father, when he has brought to an end all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. The last enemy to be eliminated is death. for he has put everything in subjection under his feet. But when it says "everything" has been put in subjection, it is clear that this does not include the one who put everything in subjection to him.
And when all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will be subjected to the one who subjected everything to him, so that God may be all in all.

Marvel not ScottA
Paul
 

Pierac

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You ignored my meatier post.
Your derogatory remarks are very telltale of your character, or lack thereof. I don't care to engage with you any further. I will only post the truth and discuss the truth with ones who value the truth.
(Ignore....)

Derogatory remarks for you giving a single word? I just pointed out your CCN response of... Exactly! That was so lame.... please repost your meatier response....

You want to talk facts! Fact... Jesus Has a God!!!

Rev 1:1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him

Joh 20:17 Jesus *said to her, "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, 'I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.'"

TLHKAJ... will you over come, or do you claim Jesus is God???

Rev 3:12 'He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he will not go out from it anymore; and I will write on him the name of My God, and the name of the city of My God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from My God, and My new name.

Silly Child... Jesus has a God both before and after His resurrection!

Joh 17:3 "This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.

TLHKAJ do you know the only true God who Sent Jesus? Perhaps you should read Rev 4 and 5... leave out the verses and Note... God is worshiped on the throne, and only one man is worthy to take the book out of Gods hand who is sitting on that throne... the Lamb of God... Jesus

You starting to see now? perhaps not??? However, someone is... or I would not still be posting here..
Paul


 
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