These are not Peter and the twelve....they are apostles and prophets along with Paul such as Barnabas (Acts 14:14).
BIBLE GOSPELS
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As well as two gospels you want to invent a two sets of apostles theory.
it's nonesence and has no Biblical basis.
If it was hid in God as scripture says then it could not be hid in the covenant.
Firstly you need to recognise that Paul is wring letters to people to address disputes and errors that have arisen. He is not writing a theological manual.
Secondly you need to take all relevant scriptures into account, not just cherry pick a few out of context.
Jesus said "The one who believes and is baptized will be saved" (Mk 16;16). Do we ignore what Jesus said?
Peter just wrote: "This prefigured baptism, which saves you now" (1Pet 3:20-21). Does that mean faith is not required?
Peter wrote "And it shall be that whoever calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved" (Acts 2:21). Does that mean faith is not required?
Paul wrote: For, “every one who calls upon the name of the Lord will be saved.” (Rom 10:13). Does that mean faith is not required?
Paul wrote: "by grace you have been saved" (Eph 2:5). Does that mean faith is not required?
Again we need to look at the context.
Take Rom 4:5-4. Verse 4 says "Now to one who works, his wages are not reckoned as a gift but as his due.". Paul is not referring works of any kind but a particular kind of work - one that earns. If we are saved by a gift of God than it cannot be a work that earns what is due.
If we look at the previous chapter, Rom 3:28, Paul writes: "For we hold that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law".
Works of the law refer to the Mosaic Law. If a man could keep those laws perfectly he would have earned salvation as a due.
Paul recognises two kinds of work - works of the law and works that are not works of the law. Works of love, for example, are not works of the law. In Gal 5:6 Paul refers to "faith working through love". It is works of love that James refers to in James 2, and when he writes "You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone".
When it speaks of the works of the law, it is speaking of the works of the law.
When it says "works" it means works period.
When it says "works" it means works period.
Davy
Well-Known Member
Yet we are never to forget what He chose Israel for, i.e., as servants in The Gospel of Jesus Christ to ALL nations and peoples. This is why The Gospel was first preached to Abraham (Galatians 3), and then passed down to Joseph's two sons Ephraim and Manasseh where it still is, and in which the Genesis 48 prophecy of the "multitude of nations" and the "great nation" have been fulfilled.
By what sauthority do you say I am wrong?
Do you think you are an infallible interpreter of scripture?
Would you suppose that this means an "empty" calling upon the Lord? Calling upon a God you don't believe in? I don't think that's what He is saying myself.
If you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus, but if you don't believe His is Lord?
Much love!
Randy Kluth
Well-Known Member
Sorry, the Scriptures say the Gospel was hidden in the Abrahamic Covenant and revealed in the Law of faith in Christ.
Mark 16:14-16 was directed to the apostles.
They were to preach this in the tribulation period.
The signs in Mark 16:17-18 they would have was for that period....we do not see this today.
This aligns with Mark 16:16. Baptism saves Israel by obedience to the commandment so they can enter the kingdom on earth. The resurrection of Christ assured he would return to establish the kingdom.
Paul was talking about the remnant of Israel in Romans 10:13 just as Peter was in Acts 2:21
Let me clarify.
The gospel was found in Abraham in Galatians 3:8. The gospel was the nations would be blessed. What was not revealed was the Gentiles would be justified by faith in Christ and the gospel of Paul apart from Israel.
Timothy observed Pauls' teaching, not Timothy read Paul's epistles.
Timothy received Paul's teaching orally, not just the parts in his letters to various congregations.
And what was Timothy instructed to do?
Was he instructed just to pass on Paul's letters?
No, this is what Paul told Timothy
You then, my son, be strong in the grace that is in Christ Jesus, and what you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also (2Tim 2:1-2)
That is how we get Paul's teaching in full - passed on orally not in afew letters.
The apostles were to go into the whole world, to the whole of creation (Mk 16:15), to make disciples of all the nations (Mt 28:19). That was the work that Jesus gave His Church, and he promised to be with them.
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That's not what scripture says.
In the previous verse to Rom 10:13 says: "For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and bestows his riches upon all who call upon him".
Peter was addressing “Men of Judea and all who dwell in Jerusalem". And dwelling in Jerusalem at that time were ¬"Parthians and Medes and Elamites and residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya belonging to Cyrene, and visitors from Rome, both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabians"
Nonsense.
I note that you don't provide any scriptural support for these assertions you keep making.
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