Aunty Jane
Well-Known Member
I believe that the definition of insanity is repeating the same thing over and over and expecting a different result.KJV Hebrews 1:8, 12
You are not listening.....Hebrews 1 is not even close to saying Jesus is God. The interpretation is very flawed. The KJB is the worst when it comes to trinitarian bias...why do you think its so popular? People cling to it as if it was written by God himself.....
The purpose of Bible translation is to take the thoughts of God, originally written in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek, and put them into the common languages of today. Bible translation makes God’s word a living Book. So genuine Christians read the Bible, not to be entertained by poetic expression, unusual words, or a dramatic turn of phrase, but to learn the will of God. It was for this reason that the King James Version came into existence in the first place, except that the language is now outdated and off-putting for those who are unfamiliar with archaic English.....that was in 1611 and we don't speak like that anymore.
Prior to that there were the works of Wycliffe, Tyndale and Coverdale. There was the Matthew’s Bible of 1537, the Great Bible of 1539, the Geneva Bible of 1560 and the Bishops’ Bible of 1568.
So why are the KJB proponents so keen to hang on to an outdated version that no longer speaks the common language of the people?
Can you tell me why you keep ignoring verse 9 of Hebrews 1....the one spoken about has a God...so how can he be that God.....its absolute nonsense. But its your nonsense not mine. You are welcome to it...I binned it years ago.
Other prophets had not lived with the Father in heaven for untold eons before the earth was even created.....don't you think that Jesus might have had just a little more acquainted with his Father than any mere human?Jesus was a prophet in His own right yet He was far different than anyone who had gone before Him. Others could say, in effect, “listen to me and I will tell you what God is like”. Jesus though is the only One who could truly say, “Look at me and I will show you what God is like”. He is the only One who could, without the slightest misrepresentation, declare God. This was John’s intent in his wording of John 1:18. Christ could do this because He is God.
John 1:18 does not need you to interpret what he said...its plain enough...
"No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (KJB)
Check out the Greek and you will see that the word "Son" is not even there. "Monogenes theos" is "only begotten god" so why did the KJB translators substitute the word "yhios" for "theos" in that verse?....because they didn't want to have to explain how God could be "begotten"....so they made up an explanation for that too.....the excuses never stop. Are they at liberty to substitute words in the Bible to suit their own beliefs?
Jesus returned to his Father in 33C.E, 40 days after his resurrection and when John recorded his Revelation all those years later, Jesus whom we know was in heaven, said...When John wrote these words it was around the end of the first century (c. AD 96). This was now over 60 years since Christ had returned to His Father in Heaven. John could say therefore that Christ had returned to His rightful place “in the bosom of the Father”.
"Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name." (KJB)
How many times did Jesus refer to his Father as "my God" in that one verse? Does God worship himself in heaven?
Why do you never even acknowledge these things? You act as if they were never said.
Its a certain kind of blindness that just makes me shake my head.
There never was a "Godhead"....there is no Godhead mentioned in any passage of scripture....the translators of the KJB made it up to fit their trinity. There was no Godhead to forfeit in the first place.There is nothing in Scripture that would lead us to conclude that Christ has ever forfeited His Godhead.
Only the KJB and its derivatives use that word. I can guarantee that the Jews who wrote the Bible never heard of it.Even when on earth the Godhead was still His own. He still retained those divine attributes that made Him God. As the apostle Paul wrote of Christ “For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.”
Good grief! How does one part of God give another part of his equal self a reward and an inheritance....do you even read what you write? What is the "fullness of deity" other than God's divine qualities manifest in the human Son of God. Jesus was not a God/man.Paul’s words could only apply to someone who is God. He said that this indwelling was “bodily” (corporeal). This was Christ’s inheritance as the Son of God. He was God from God. Paul had previously written “For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell;” Colossians 1:19 KJV “For it was the Father's good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him” Colossians 1:19 NASB
“For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him” NIV
Where in all of the Christian scriptures is he ever said to be other than "the Son of God".....
Yes, Jehovah's beloved Son.....not God in a human body.7 And there was a cloud that overshadowed them: and a voice came out of the cloud, saying, This is my beloved Son: hear him.
Leave it now, please....its enough. You can believe Jesus is God if you wish, but you will never be able to plead ignorance on this subject.
I don't need to force my views down your throat, and you will never force yours down mine, so just let it go....Jesus will tell us soon enough. I can wait...what about you?