reformed1689
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- Oct 15, 2019
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No, actually it isn't. He had already moved on to another subject.1 Corinthians 6:9-11 is in the immediate context.
.I didn't ask for your interpretation, I asked for your application of my interpretation. Interpretation is not the same thing as the application.I want to hear it from you. You already know what my interpretation is. I want to know what yours is in light of the added information.
No none of the three are true. It was not originally written in English. It was translated in English. There is a HUGE difference. There is a difference between the Bible being written to us, and written for us. It was not written to us. Just look at how the books of the NT are addressed. But it was certainly written for us.1 and 3 are correct. It is indeed written in English; otherwise we would not be able to read it in English. And how is it that you think that it is not written to us? if that were true, the Bible doesn't apply to us. But in all reality it is God's message to everyone inspired by the Holy Ghost.
In my example it is NOT the same building.If it is the same building then I wouldn't be that far off.
What on earth does that have to do with my point?And also, there are scriptures that apply that way. Have you ever heard of how prophecy works like there are two mountains and a valley in between? Prophecy, most often, speaks of both mountains and thus the scenario you have presented above is not so far-fetched. For example, some prophecies applied to the time in question and apply to the time in question, but also have application for today.
Hardening my heart because I actually understand how to interpret Scripture and you clearly don't? Nonsense.I would only say to you that I believe that you are hardening your heart with this statement.
Read Hebrews 3:7-8, Hebrews 3:15, and Hebrews 4:7.