Headship, Submission and Women in Ministry

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Barrd

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Wormwood said:
Barrd,

First, I do not discount women or their value in the Kingdom or their roles in history among God''s people. I think this is a very unfortunate and unfair line of reasoning you are using. Essentially you are suggesting that I hold my views because I am sexist and have a low view of women and their value. No, I believe the Bible and I try to interpret it accurately. Since the Holy Spirit penned it, I do not think my views frustrate the Spirit since I am simply striving to adhere to what He inspired. In sum, I would appreciate it if you dealt with the content of my views rather than implying that they come from impure motives (namely, a desire to oppress women)
Perhaps I am a bit over sensitive on this issue, since I am a woman who does serve in a pastoral capacity in our home church. I preach to, and teach both men and women regularly.
I am also the mother of four beautiful and talented daughters, and the grandmother of five beautiful and talented grand daughters. I will not allow cultural bias to stand in their way as they grow in grace and wisdom in the Lord.
I know that you are not overtly sexist...you would be perfectly willing for a woman to pursue a career in medicine, or law, or business...or whatever career she pleases, yes? You have no problem with the gals earning the same wage as a man doing the same job, have you? She may own her own home, drive her own car, even have her own bank account, and credit cards.
But all of this should have been our natural right and heritage from the beginning. We should never have had to fight for the right to vote, or to get an education...but we did. I'm always reminded of that line from the Mary Poppins movie, where Mrs. Banks is singing about "votes for women"...do you remember the movie?
It goes
"Though we adore men, individually....we agree that as a group, they're rather stupid."
That line still makes me smile...
But I digress.
Tell me, WW...if this were a hundred years ago, would you be one of those who believed "a woman's place is in the home"? You need not answer that question here. But WW...be honest with yourself.


Second, I do know about the historical background of these letters. However, I see absolutely nothing in these verses to suggest a cultural prohibition. Paul never mentions Artemis, the cults, or any particular groups that were allowing their backgrounds to cause disruptions in the church. Rather, he appeals to the unchanging nature of the Law, creation and the fall of Adam and Eve as rationale for women silence. As such, nothing in Paul's argument would cause us to infer that he is only addressing a temporal or cultural problem. On the contrary, he infers that this is the practice of all the churches and that women submissiveness in this area is commanded by the Law of God and God's design in creation.
And yet, he does not give this instruction to the church in Rome.
Or the church in Galatia.
Or the church in Philippi.
Or the church in Colossae.
Or the church in Thessalonica.
He tells the gals in the rowdy seaport city of Corinth not to disrupt the service by calling out to their husbands, but never mentions anything about them not preaching or teaching.
When he writes to the church in Ephesus, he does not repeat this instruction, although he does talk a bit about hierarchy within the family at home, which is something quite different.

Now, WW, as you may know, I live in the deep south. I am ashamed to say that there is a great deal of racial prejudice here. I wish it were not so, but it is something I must deal with. The plain and simple fact is that there are a few neighborhoods in this small town where our white children are not safe....just as, I am even more ashamed to say, there are neighborhoods where black kids can not play safely.
Unfortunately, I have had to forbid my small ones not to go and play in a certain playground. It makes me sick to think that I am promoting bigotry, but there is no help for it...it is dangerous for them to play there. Of course, my kids are grown now...and most of them do understand that black and white, we are all just people. But, I'm afraid the damage is done. Seeds of bigotry were sown...and have borne their evil fruit. My kids would never think of themselves as being "bigots"....their Mom raised them better than that, they'd tell you pretty quick (especially if I were in the room)...but it's there.
Why do I tell you all this? Because I think this is sort of the same thing. Paul knew that it was dangerous for these newly converted Christians to play in Artemis' neighborhood, and he warned Timothy...and the seeds of ugly misogyny were planted. Sadly they have borne much fruit, being carefully watered and fertilized by the RCC...(did you ever wonder why the Catholic clergy still insists that Mary Magdalene was a prostitute?), and eagerly consumed by men in an age when traditional sex roles are being questioned.

Finally, you may not have been reading my dialogue with Stan. I will just quote a comment I made to him on this issue of the word for "authority."
I've been skimming over it. As you know, I am no scholar...I've said as much from the beginning. I am quite convinced that the Bible was never intended for scholars, but for average, every day folks. Fishermen, carpenters, tent-makers...and women, WW. Simple little housewives and mothers...like me.

This is simply not accurate. A study was done on this word by H. Scott Baldwin. He found 82 occurrences of this word in Greek literature from the 1st century BC to the 12 century AD. He concludes that in every case, but two, the word did not carry a negative connotation. The two cases where it did have a negative connotation were both over 300 years removed from the NT usage. The fact is that the word does not carry a negative connotation. It was almost always used as authority in the general sense. (Baldwin, “Word” and “authenteo”) (See also, George W. Knight III, “Authenteō in Reference to Women in 1 Timothy 2:12,” in New Testament Studies, 30 (1984), 143-157. He researched all the secular uses of this verb cited in the Arndt & Gingrich lexicon; only one (of uncertain date) means “murder,” and the rest mean “to have authority” in a neutral sense.)
Still, there are other greek words Paul could have used here.
He could have used this word:
G1849 (Strong)

ἐξουσία

exousia

ex-oo-see'-ah

From G1832 (in the sense of ability); privilege, that is, (subjectively) force, capacity, competency, freedom, or (objectively) mastery (concretely magistrate, superhuman, potentate, token of control), delegated influence: - authority, jurisdiction, liberty, power, right, strength.

Total KJV occurrences: 103

Or this:

G2715 (Strong)

κατεξουσιάζω

katexousiazō

kat-ex-oo-see-ad'-zo

From G2596 and G1850; to have (wield) full privilege over: - exercise authority.

Total KJV occurrences: 2

But he didn't. Why?

So I'll ask you... "Why would Paul use the Law and creation and a neutral term for authority if he was only referring to a local issue with certain women who were being abusive with their authority?" That does not make any sense to me.
But he wasn't using a neutral term for authority. This is the one and only place in the entire Bible where this term is used. And I do have to wonder...why does Paul use the singular form "woman" here, if he wasn't referring to a specific woman?

1Ti 2:11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
1Ti 2:12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.

A small thing, to be sure...but significant?

A better question would be "Why does Paul suddenly take this sexist position with regard to women serving in the church when he does not mention this injunction anywhere else?"
 

StanJ

Lifelong student of God's Word.
May 13, 2014
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Wormwood said:
Hey Stan,
Let me know what Moo says. I am interested in hearing him expound on it. As you can see, I took that quote from another well-known commentary and I would be very surprised if the author was misrepresenting him.
I don't know that any of these scholars are showing and "predispositions" as it refers to the idea that these passages are referring to women in general. My point is simply to show that there is nothing here that seems to indicate any reason to see this as exclusively directed to wives in the home instead of general submissiveness to men in general, especially in the local church. Now, I agree that there seems to be some predispositions about WHY Paul would write such commands. I don't agree with some of the authors in this regard. However, I just wanted to show that these are very well known scholars and commentaries and none of them seem to suggest that this is restrictive to wives in the home.
I'll see what other commentaries I have say on the topic and relay that tomorrow if I get some time.
I will. He doesn't always answer very quickly though.
IMO, those citations come with certain predispositions, and I have read others. I'll look to find them, if I can.
IF, as you say, the references are to women in general, the do you believe ANY woman must submit to ANY man?

I was watching the NFL playoffs all day Sunday so just getting back in here.
 

Wormwood

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I will. He doesn't always answer very quickly though.
IMO, those citations come with certain predispositions, and I have read others. I'll look to find them, if I can.
IF, as you say, the references are to women in general, the do you believe ANY woman must submit to ANY man?

I was watching the NFL playoffs all day Sunday so just getting back in here.
Hey Stan,

Sounds good. I'll try to look into some stuff later today. I just wrote a very extensive reply to Barrd's material and my browser did a refresh and disposed of it all. Sigh. So I am going to get some work done and come back to it later when I am in a better frame of mind...lol.

I believe women should be submissive to their husbands and should be submissive to the leadership of their local church when it comes to teaching and authority. I think that is Paul's point. I believe women taught men and prophesied and so forth in informal and individual settings outside the church. Yet even in outside settings it seems Paul desired women to cover their heads and so forth. So, I think the general theme of Scripture is that it pleases God for women to be modest and submissive to authorities and to not put themselves in places of authority in the church. I do not believe this applies to women working in the corporate world and so forth. It seems that this is always directed at the structure of the home and the functioning of the spiritual life, especially at the local church gathering. There was to be a respect for God's created order, the teaching in the Law and a reflection of Christ's relationship with the Church in the manner in which women and men interact in these settings.

Just my thoughts. Im a KC fan, btw, so I am officially bummed at the playoffs at this point :)
 

StanJ

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Wormwood said:
Hey Stan,

Just my thoughts. Im a KC fan, btw, so I am officially bummed at the playoffs at this point :)
Bummer about losing a long response. Do you not see an auto save feature?

I'm a Pats and Hawks fan, so my teams are out, but I will be rooting for the Panthers in the Superbowl.
 

mjrhealth

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Paul desired women to cover their heads and so forth.
Yes Paul not Jesus. Did Jesus tell any one to cover themselves before He healed them.Man Christians just seem to have no idea of who Christ is.

We are all one spirit, there is neither male of female in the spirit, God needed male and female in the flesh so that man could multiply,not for anu other reason. God cares not for the flesh it is man who judges by the oiutside appearance.
 

Wormwood

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The Barrd said:
Well, I suppose i should not have expected WW to respond to me.
After all, I am "just a woman"....

And there are football playoffs going on!

:rolleyes:
I dont know if you read my reply to Stan, but I did reply, at length....and it got deleted because the screen refreshed before I could hit post. I will write it again in a word doc and copy and paste it to prevent it from happening again.
 

Wormwood

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I know that you are not overtly sexist...you would be perfectly willing for a woman to pursue a career in medicine, or law, or business...or whatever career she pleases, yes? You have no problem with the gals earning the same wage as a man doing the same job, have you? She may own her own home, drive her own car, even have her own bank account, and credit cards.
Barrd, again, I am disappointed that you would continually employ this kind of tactic in your responses. Let’s address the Scriptures rather than implying that my real motivation is some sort of hidden sexist agenda. If you choose to believe I am a sexist bigot, then that is your choice. I am not going to try to defend my character in this matter. I allow my views to be guided by the Scriptures and I would appreciate it if you gave me the benefit of the doubt in this matter. I think that is the Christ-like thing to do.

And yet, he does not give this instruction to the church in Rome.
Or the church in Galatia.
Or the church in Philippi.
Or the church in Colossae.
Or the church in Thessalonica.
So, according to this rationale, we should only accept a command in Scripture if it is repeated in every NT Epistle. Is that what you are suggesting? Two separate epistles with near identical commands is not enough? Paul making no mention of women elders to either Timothy or Titus in his characteristics for men is not sufficient? It seems to me you need a lightning bolt from heaven to convince you differently on this matter. Scripture doesn’t work that way…not on any topic. This argument of yours effectively renders all of the NT meaningless.


But, I'm afraid the damage is done. Seeds of bigotry were sown...and have borne their evil fruit. My kids would never think of themselves as being "bigots"....their Mom raised them better than that, they'd tell you pretty quick (especially if I were in the room)...but it's there.
Sigh. Again, let us please deal with the Scriptures rather than implying that I want to see it a certain way because I have deep-seeded bigotry in my heart. Homosexuals make the exact same argument. Never mind the explicit commands in the Bible against such practices….

I've been skimming over it. As you know, I am no scholar...I've said as much from the beginning. I am quite convinced that the Bible was never intended for scholars, but for average, every day folks. Fishermen, carpenters, tent-makers...and women, WW. Simple little housewives and mothers...like me.
Well, I find this confusing. If it is so simple that a child or housewife could read it and understand it, why do we need 20 pages of Corinthian and Ephesian backgrounds along with Greek arguments to show the basic commands of 1 Cor. 14 and 1 Tim. 2 are not valid? When I have my kids read 1 Tim. 2:11 and ask them what it means they reply, “Women should learn quietly, and not teach men in church.” Seems like the recent scholarship is what is causing all the confusion, not the simple reading of the text.

Still, there are other greek words Paul could have used here.
He could have used this word:
G1849 (Strong)
Well, as a “simple housewife” that believes the Bible is easily understood, you sure dive into Greek arguments a lot to dismiss these passages. It seems like when I discuss the Greek, you respond by saying, “We don’t need to be scholars to get it.” And then when I point to the simple reading of the text, your respond by pointing to Greek and historical background studies.

So, if we are going to look at the Greek, lets look at it and accept the scholarship for what it says. I have pointed you to two detailed works on this word that have done extensive study on its use. Also, I find these arguments from silence not very persuasive. It is like saying, “Barrd used the word, ‘why.’ Why did she do that when she could have used the words, ‘How come’ or ‘For what reason?’” If it is proven that the word Paul used means authority in the neutral sense, then I assume that Paul used this word because he wanted to speak of authority in the neutral sense. Until you can prove that the word means something other than that, then I don’t think this line of rationale goes anywhere.


But he wasn't using a neutral term for authority. This is the one and only place in the entire Bible where this term is used. And I do have to wonder...why does Paul use the singular form "woman" here, if he wasn't referring to a specific woman?
Again, we are going back to Greek, this time plural forms to determine what Paul meant. This is fine, but just pointing out that this is an appeal to scholarship and linguistics. I know Greek, and I assure you that Paul used the language in the precise way to show he was talking about women in general and not a specific woman or group of women. He would not have worded it this way if that were the case. In fact, he would have worded almost the opposite of how he words this if he had someone specific in mind. Paul uses no definite article and he does not use the demonstrative pronoun εκοινος for “those” women. The right translation is “I do not permit a woman to teach…” There is no indefinite article in the Greek and the lack of the definite article, the context and the construction of this sentence makes it clear Paul is referring to women in general. It is also why pretty much every translation renders it this way.

WW,
Why is it that I have the distinct feeling that you did not read the article I referenced?
Here is the link again.:
I generally do not waste my time with online blogs. Anyone can post a blog and most of them are filled with nonsense and are written by people who do not cite their sources and have no expertise on the topics they discuss. Its almost like grabbing a random guy off the street and asking his opinion on this matter. If I am going to spend my time reviewing an argument, I prefer it be from someone reputable who actually spent time studying the material and provides sources for my own review.

That being said, I did read this article, and I found pretty much what I expected. First, if this guy’s writing informs your decision making for understanding “why [you] feel as you do” you should understand the following: 1. This author claims he is the “president” of his ministry which consists of his own blog. 2. The author has a bachelors degree in finance from ECU in Oklahoma. 3. The author took some online courses at a Seminary in Florida and did not graduate. 4. The author has not been published. 5. The author offers no citations for his sources to check the accuracy of his claims.

So, I find it pretty alarming that you would entrust yourself to the teaching and scholarship of someone who is the president of his own blog online on such an important issue and would take his word about words like authenteo over the books I have cited where PhD’s actually looked up every Greek usage of the word over 13 centuries!!!

That being said, I will give you my comments of his blog in my next comment. I have to run an errand so I will just respond in another post a bit later.
 

Wormwood

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mjrhealth said:
Yes Paul not Jesus. Did Jesus tell any one to cover themselves before He healed them.Man Christians just seem to have no idea of who Christ is.

We are all one spirit, there is neither male of female in the spirit, God needed male and female in the flesh so that man could multiply,not for anu other reason. God cares not for the flesh it is man who judges by the oiutside appearance.
Um, you do realize Jesus did not author any of the Gospels, right? smh
 

StanJ

Lifelong student of God's Word.
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Wormwood said:
Barrd, again, I am disappointed that you would continually employ this kind of tactic in your responses. Let’s address the Scriptures rather than implying that my real motivation is some sort of hidden sexist agenda. If you choose to believe I am a sexist bigot, then that is your choice. I am not going to try to defend my character in this matter. I allow my views to be guided by the Scriptures and I would appreciate it if you gave me the benefit of the doubt in this matter. I think that is the Christ-like thing to do.
She does this all the time and complains when we don't take her words as being sincere. This, sadly, is a trait a lot of women learn.
 

Wormwood

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Okay, so now lets look at President Burleson’s blog. :rolleyes:

Some Christian men, however, have set themselves up as authorities in the institutional church and implemented systems of control that turn pockets of evangelicalism into cultism.
So, basically it seems his argument is that for 2,000 years, Christianity was nothing more than a cult. Really? Moreover, he is apparently the pastor of a Baptist church. To my knowledge, Baptists do not ordain women. Does that mean he belongs to a cult?

If anybody ever tells you that women should never teach men, or that women should never be in leadership over men, or that women should be silent around men, then you should mutter under your breath, "Stupid, stupid, stupid."
Ok, so let me get this straight. This guy is suggesting that accepting Paul’s command in Scripture about the conduct and dress of women in worship is no different than literally applying the hyperbole of Jesus to cut off one’s own hand and commit suicide as equal? You have got to be kidding me. Also, he references a false teacher in Revelation 2 as a positive affirmation for the presence of female teachers. First, no. Second, it is likely that this is not referring to a woman at all. Consider the following...

Like Pergamum, the church of Thyatira is accused of giving free rein to a group of false teachers in influencing God’s servants to compromise with idolatrous aspects of pagan society. Possibly the reference is to only one individual false teacher, who could be a woman. However, the reference to “the woman” and “her children” (2:23) evokes the phrase “to the elect lady and her children” in 2 John 1, which in its context refers respectively to the community as a whole and to the individuals who compose the community (likewise 1 Pet. 5:13 and female personifications of Israel in the OT and of the church in the NT).

G. K. Beale, The Book of Revelation: A Commentary on the Greek Text, New International Greek Testament Commentary (Grand Rapids, MI; Carlisle, Cumbria: W.B. Eerdmans; Paternoster Press, 1999), 260–261.

Sure enough, less than five years later (A.D. 63) the Christians in Ephesus were in trouble. There were some women or maybe even a single woman, most likely a new convert out of the Artemis cult, who had begun to teach false truth in the assembly at Ephesus.
This is a whole lot of fanciful thinking. Paul references a false teacher. He says nothing of a woman false teacher or of someone who had been a recent convert from the Artemis cult. The text mentions no such thing. Paul gives almost an identical command to Corinth as he does to Ephesus. Moreover, he gives the same parameters for Titus in Crete for electing men leaders as he does for Timothy. And, Paul gives no indication that his instructions are limited to certain women or a particular circumstance. I find it funny that the author says we commit spiritual suicide by “acting on words of Scripture without looking at their meaning” and yet almost all of his argument comes from his imagined scenario and not from the “meaning” of the words of Scripture. Again, homosexual proponents use this same argumentation and say that Paul is only rejecting certain forms of abusive homosexual activity prominent in Rome.

The reason I believe the problem in Ephesus is a particular woman who is in a teaching position within the assembly of Christ is because the noun "woman" is in the singular, not the plural. In verses 9 and 10, women is in the plural, but in verse 11, Paul switches to "the woman" or possibly that woman about whom Timothy has written Paul.
This guy clearly does not know Greek. There is a reason no translation says, “that women” or “the woman.” The Greek doesn’t say it, nor does it imply it. It is best translated “a woman” referring to the gender in general, which is precisely the way you would word it if you did not have a specific person or scenario in mind. The language proves the opposite of what the guy is trying to say. I think this is either ignorance or intentional deception at work.


This is the key phrase. First, the phrase translated "I suffer not a woman to teach" is literally in the tense of "I am not now permitting a woman to teach."
Do you realize that pretty much every command in the Bible is a present-tense verb? Paul uses the same form of verb in 1 Tim. 2:1 and I think we can all affirm that Paul was not implying, “I am presently urging prayers for all people…” If I say, “I do not like onions” yes, one could say, “You are not now liking onions.” That is true. But my statement does NOT imply that I plan on liking onions in the future, as he implies. This is misleading to say the least. Paul does not imply by the use of verbs here that this is only a present prohibition that is subject to change.


This phrase "usurp authority" translates one Greek word authentein. This word is used only one time in all of Scripture--let me repeat that again--this word authentein is used only once in the entire Bible, right here in I Timothy 2:12.
I have already commented on this word so I wont bother repeating myself again. Suffice it to say that this word is not a negative term for abusive authority. It is a neutral term.

Timothy, tell the woman causing problems that her notion she should always have the floor and direct the assembly because she believes women are superior to men--since Artemis came first and Apollo came second--is a misguided belief.
This is pure assumption as to why Paul is writing this. What this author does not say is that Paul uses the exact same kind of argument referring to Genesis 2-3 in 1 Cor. 11, which was not Ephesus nor a people closely influenced by the cult of Artemis. So even if Paul did have the false teaching of Artemis worship in mind, it is not the only reason he employs Genesis 2-3 nor does it mean he limits its scope to these particular women in this setting.

And Timothy, remind her that the Scriptures teach that Eve was decieved. Contrary to what she learned in the Temple of Artemis, males are not always her problem. To be deceived and in need of correction is just as much a possibility for her as it was for Eve. She must move away from her belief in female superiority, a belief reinforced by the Artemis cult.
It is true that the pagan culture of Ephesus at that time was full of women religious leaders, so much so that what Paul is teaching actually rejects what was allowed by the culture. So, as I see it, this argument actually hurts your view. Paul is countering a common practice in Ephesus for women to serve as leaders and teachers. Again, the word here gives no indication of abusive authority. After all, isn’t it equally bad for men to exhibit abusive and manipulative authority?! Why not say, “I do not permit men or women to be abusive with their authority!”
In sum, I agree that Timothy was dealing with a culture that had been impacted by idolatrous worship. However, NOTHING in this letter suggests that Paul is referring only to specific women who were abusive. Rather, he is countering cultural trends of dress and leadership by pointing to what is acceptable in the worship of the God and Father of Jesus Christ. He counters false teaching, inappropriate dress, women leadership and a host of other issues.

I find this article to be filled with speculation, inept Greek reflections, and a few bizarre illustrations to show why those who take the opposite view are sexist and dangerous. Never mind the fact that this has been what the church has believed and practiced for 2,000 years…

Oh, and I might add...this is perhaps my longest reply to anyone here...so maybe I can earn some brownie points on the gender-o-meter. Haha
 

Barrd

His Humble Servant
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...following a Jewish carpenter...
Wormwood said:
Barrd, again, I am disappointed that you would continually employ this kind of tactic in your responses. Let’s address the Scriptures rather than implying that my real motivation is some sort of hidden sexist agenda. If you choose to believe I am a sexist bigot, then that is your choice. I am not going to try to defend my character in this matter. I allow my views to be guided by the Scriptures and I would appreciate it if you gave me the benefit of the doubt in this matter. I think that is the Christ-like thing to do.
Believe it or not, I am actually trying to give you the benefit of the doubt, here.
Perhaps the problem is that my experience as a woman growing up in the 50s and 60s is quite different than your experience as a man growing up in the 80s and 90s.
I've told the story of how I was left a widow with seven kids to support, and no assets, while the baby was barely out of diapers. Until you've been a woman in that sort of situation you have no idea just how much sexism is still left in this world...yes, even in the 21st century. And much of it is fostered by the church, sadly.
I suppose I do have an "attitude" about it, and I apologize. I should not let it spill over into the forum. I need to get it through my head that not every man I meet is a sexist pork pie...
Sorry, WW.


So, according to this rationale, we should only accept a command in Scripture if it is repeated in every NT Epistle. Is that what you are suggesting? Two separate epistles with near identical commands is not enough? Paul making no mention of women elders to either Timothy or Titus in his characteristics for men is not sufficient? It seems to me you need a lightning bolt from heaven to convince you differently on this matter. Scripture doesn’t work that way…not on any topic. This argument of yours effectively renders all of the NT meaningless.
This injunction against women teaching goes against everything Jesus taught. It also goes against Paul's own teachings in other of his epistles, for instance, the ladies of Romans 16, and the clear indication in Ephesians that there are no more boundaries between Jews and Gentiles, or between men and women. There must be a reason for Paul to reverse himself...and reverse Jesus as well...as he advises Timothy. Now, what could it be?

Sigh. Again, let us please deal with the Scriptures rather than implying that I want to see it a certain way because I have deep-seeded bigotry in my heart. Homosexuals make the exact same argument. Never mind the explicit commands in the Bible against such practices….
I have to say that I am not happy about the comparison you are making.
Being a woman is not at all like being homosexual.
First of all, God never did call being female "an abomination".
And second...I really was "born that way"...
Just the fact that you are making such a comparison whispers of sexism. You just are not aware of it in yourself, WW.
Don't get me wrong, I still think you're a great guy...and I still like having doors opened for me, and my chair pulled out...I do like being a girl. <_<


Well, I find this confusing. If it is so simple that a child or housewife could read it and understand it, why do we need 20 pages of Corinthian and Ephesian backgrounds along with Greek arguments to show the basic commands of 1 Cor. 14 and 1 Tim. 2 are not valid? When I have my kids read 1 Tim. 2:11 and ask them what it means they reply, “Women should learn quietly, and not teach men in church.” Seems like the recent scholarship is what is causing all the confusion, not the simple reading of the text.
20 pages? LOL. Let's not exaggerate. I'm not that ambitious.
To truly understand scripture, I believe it is necessary to know a couple of things.
I want to know who is speaking. Paul is a many-faceted character. Let us not forget that he started out as a Jewish lawyer, whose parents obviously had money. Yes, Jesus confronted him, and he did a complete 180...but he still writes like a Jewish lawyer, and as his friend Peter says, there are things in his letters that are difficult to understand.
You also must have an idea who the intended audience is.
You may not realize it, but it sounds a whole lot like you are planting the seeds of sexism, my friend. I'm betting that you are not explaining to your progeny that the situation in Ephesus was a mite...touchy. Do you have them read in Acts about the angry silversmiths who sold silver statues of Diana? Even as a little girl, I knew that was going to be a problem.
Of course, as I mentioned, I was also fascinated by Greek mythology. Did you know that the Amazon gals did a bit of surgery on themselves, to rid themselves of a certain female accoutrement that tends to get in the way for some gals who want to practice archery? OUCH! Do not doubt it, these ladies were serious.
And they did not trust men. You are good for just one thing, pal...and you'd better be good at it, if you want to live.

Oh, and did you catch your own remark:
"If it is so simple that a child or housewife could read it and understand it"??
Tell me again how you are not sexist, WW?

Well, as a “simple housewife” that believes the Bible is easily understood, you sure dive into Greek arguments a lot to dismiss these passages. It seems like when I discuss the Greek, you respond by saying, “We don’t need to be scholars to get it.” And then when I point to the simple reading of the text, your respond by pointing to Greek and historical background studies.
Are you surprised to find that a "simple housewife" might know how to use Strong's concordance, WW?

So, if we are going to look at the Greek, lets look at it and accept the scholarship for what it says. I have pointed you to two detailed works on this word that have done extensive study on its use. Also, I find these arguments from silence not very persuasive. It is like saying, “Barrd used the word, ‘why.’ Why did she do that when she could have used the words, ‘How come’ or ‘For what reason?’” If it is proven that the word Paul used means authority in the neutral sense, then I assume that Paul used this word because he wanted to speak of authority in the neutral sense. Until you can prove that the word means something other than that, then I don’t think this line of rationale goes anywhere.
If The Barrd regularly asked "how come" and then suddenly changed to "why", she had a reason. Knowing her as I do, I'd guess she was working on a new character for one of her stories, and his ways of speaking have "bled out" into her posts.
It is kind of funny that this term is not used anywhere else in the entire Bible. Why?
Ahem....I mean "How come?"


Again, we are going back to Greek, this time plural forms to determine what Paul meant. This is fine, but just pointing out that this is an appeal to scholarship and linguistics. I know Greek, and I assure you that Paul used the language in the precise way to show he was talking about women in general and not a specific woman or group of women. He would not have worded it this way if that were the case. In fact, he would have worded almost the opposite of how he words this if he had someone specific in mind. Paul uses no definite article and he does not use the demonstrative pronoun εκοινος for “those” women. The right translation is “I do not permit a woman to teach…” There is no indefinite article in the Greek and the lack of the definite article, the context and the construction of this sentence makes it clear Paul is referring to women in general. It is also why pretty much every translation renders it this way.
I'm going to take your word for this one. I do know a bit about Greek mythology....but I do not speak a word of Greek.

I generally do not waste my time with online blogs. Anyone can post a blog and most of them are filled with nonsense and are written by people who do not cite their sources and have no expertise on the topics they discuss. Its almost like grabbing a random guy off the street and asking his opinion on this matter. If I am going to spend my time reviewing an argument, I prefer it be from someone reputable who actually spent time studying the material and provides sources for my own review.
The thing about that is that not all scholars always agree. I've seen in these threads folks pull up scholars to back up totally different povs...and I'm sure you have, as well.
And after all...it's the very same Bible, isn't it?
Okay, so I don't speak Greek or Hebrew. Does that mean that the plain English my Bible is written in is somehow inferior?
Does one really need a fancy shmancy theology degree in order to "exegete" the Bible? Must I have written a dissertation in order to understand "hermeneutics"?
WW, when I started reading the Bible...and I mean the grown up KJV...I was still very young. I had read and understood Shakespeare's 'Midsommer Night's Dream', and his 'Merchant of Venice' before I was 12 years old..but I didn't know what words like "doctrine" or "dogma" meant. My parents were not exactly fanatic about taking us to church, so I did not study under a Sunday School teacher, nor did I hear many sermons. You might say that I was educated by a great Rabbi...Jesus, Himself.
I was fascinated by Jesus, and I still am. It never occurred to me, ever, that I did not have as much right to grow in grace and wisdom as my brothers, nor did anyone ever tell me that my thoughts and ideas would not be welcome in God's House.

That being said, I did read this article, and I found pretty much what I expected. First, if this guy’s writing informs your decision making for understanding “why [you] feel as you do” you should understand the following: 1. This author claims he is the “president” of his ministry which consists of his own blog. 2. The author has a bachelors degree in finance from ECU in Oklahoma. 3. The author took some online courses at a Seminary in Florida and did not graduate. 4. The author has not been published. 5. The author offers no citations for his sources to check the accuracy of his claims.
A bit of an intellectual snob, then? Yeah, I suppose it's an occupational hazard.

So, I find it pretty alarming that you would entrust yourself to the teaching and scholarship of someone who is the president of his own blog online on such an important issue and would take his word about words like authenteo over the books I have cited where PhD’s actually looked up every Greek usage of the word over 13 centuries!!!
Except that I had long ago come to the very same conclusions as he did.
For a very long time, I did think that women were to take a secondary role...oh, not because Jesus said so, but because the church said so. Silly, I guess.
Then a couple of things happened in my life.
a. I was suddenly widowed, left with seven small kids, no assets, and no marketable skills. I busted my....uh...I worked my tail off for the first several weeks, taking any drudge job I could find. I cleaned houses, I did laundry, I did yard work, I washed windows, I mucked out stables, I walked dogs and fed and cleaned up after cats, I baby sat...I did anything and everything that would make me a few honest dollars. And through it all, I managed to get myself an Associate's degree in legal studies, which landed me a pretty good job as a legal secretary, which eventually worked into a permanent job as a legal assistant...and suddenly I was making more money than hubby had done.
b. I was mauled by a vicious dog, and bled out before the ambulance got there. I should have been DOA...but an angel intervened. It's a long story, and I don't really like telling it on the internet, because people accuse me of making it up...but I assure you, it is true.

And i met a man who was quite impressed by my writing. One thing led to another, and he showed me Romans 16, and told me about Junia. Of course, I was hooked.


That being said, I will give you my comments of his blog in my next comment. I have to run an errand so I will just respond in another post a bit later.
I think you've pretty well told me what you think of the article, WW. Besides my three youngest grandkids are here, with my daughter, who wants to take me out to supper. I think I'm gonna put on some lipstick and maybe even a pair of earrings...and go out with her and my son in law....
 

mjrhealth

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Um, you do realize Jesus did not author any of the Gospels, right? smh
Actually He didnt, we still dont know today who did. There is still contention even today as to who wrote it, But than teher are some here who consder the spiritual things of God "clap trap", so i assume that says it all,