Headship, Submission and Women in Ministry

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Wormwood

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Do you really think the Lord "does not need" our various ministries? Have you not read:
My point is not that God does not use our ministries, but that our obedience is much more important to God than our sacrifice. The Kingdom of God and its existence does not hinge on your home group, nor my local church. When we look at the churches in Revelation, Jesus was ready to snuff some of them out because of their lack of obedience. It is more important to God that we obey him than we serve him. I can give the church a million dollars a year, but if I am obtaining that wealth by oppressing and mistreating people, it is better that I stop my wrongdoing than continue to give a lot of money and do it in a way that is dishonorable. Jesus told people to leave their gifts and be reconciled first. God does not want our gifts if we are being disobedient. Our service is meaningless if we do not do it in a way that honors Him and His Word. That was my point.

Will you say, WW, that I, and women like me have not been sent?
“Let a woman learn quietly with all submissiveness. I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet. For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor.” (1 Timothy 2:11–14, ESV)

I would say that these verses expresses the will of God in the assembly of believers. So while you may have gifts from God that he desires you to use in various capacities, his expressed will is that teaching in the assembly of believers is not what he desires of you. I am not comfortable just dismissing these verses or finding a way to show that they are extremely limited in their scope and purpose when the context, grammar and history of the Church for 2,000 years suggests no such thing.

So I guess my question to you is: "Do you think that these verses are not God's will or that billions of Christians for 2,000 years did not understand them?"

WW...I'm sorry, but I have to ask you...are you seriously comparing women in ministry to homosexuals? Honestly?
Can a homosexual teach men in a corporate setting, WW? I would say "no"...however, I do not recall any specific prohibition against it. Yes, they are sinning...but which of us can stand and say that we are without sin? If being a sinner means a person can't teach, then we are all in the deep stuff.
My point, of course, is that we need to use a bit of what I like to call "uncommon sense".
I am not comparing the act of a woman teaching with a homosexual act. As I have tried to explain a couple times, the same hermeneutical principles that are employed to allow people to dismiss 1 Cor 14, Eph. 5, 1 Tim 2 and other verses are the very principles incorporated to suggest that homosexual prohibitions in the NT really only applied to specific cultures or abuses in the practice. For me, this is about how we read the Bible, not about suggesting the act of a woman teaching and homosexuality are the same. I hope that makes better sense.

Also, I think you are very mistaken with the notion that because none of us are "without sin" that this means we should allow homosexuals to be elders and teachers. Why not allow rapists to be bishops and overseers? Why not murderers? The idea that suggests that we all sin, therefore who are we to say someone else cannot serve is both prominent and dangerous in our churches today. Paul lists character traits for elders and deacons for a reason. They are to be examples of holiness and exhibit the patience, love and godliness that other Christians should seek to follow. Why have standards at all if we are just going to say, "Well we all sin so lets just let people do whatever they want." I doubt that is what you are saying, but that is how this type of logic works itself out in our churches today. We are to strive for holiness and we see Paul rebuking and having people thrown out of the fellowship because of unrepentant sexual sin. We most certainly are not to wink at such matters or act as if because we all sin that therefore no standards should exist. The Bible teaches quite the opposite. We should take the commands of God seriously and we show we love him through our obedience. To suggest we can love him and ignore his commands is contrary to the very words of Jesus.


1Co 11:5 But every woman that prayeth or prophesieth with her head uncovered dishonoureth her head: for that is even all one as if she were shaven.
Now, it is possible, I suppose, for me to pray silently...I do it all the time. But if I'm going to prophecy, I'm going to have to make some noise.
I never claimed Scripture said you couldnt pray (or prophesy) publicly or out loud. We see people prophesying all the time in public settings in the NT. However, there is a difference in praying or prophesying publicly and doing this in the assembly of believers. When there is a formal assembly of Christians in an area that meets under the guidance of elders, this is when the Bible calls women to be silent as an act of worship and honor to God and not take the role of a leader or teacher. When Christians are not meeting formally, then certainly women prophesied and prayed and even taught others (such as Aquilla and Priscilla). Yet, it is clear both in the Bible and in church history that they did not do this in the assembly of believers. It was seen as offensive to God and was never practiced. Again, I would just want to know from you what you think you have learned that suggests that 2,000 years of Church practice and teaching is errant and the seemingly clear teaching of the NT on this matter actually not only does not condemn, but actually affirms this practice. I have seen no arguments from anyone on this board or in recent scholarship that actually gives any positive affirmation of this practice. The only thing I have seen is attempts to lessen the significance of words, make commands contextual to a particular setting (even though they reference the law and creation as rationale) or make arguments from silence. None of which are convincing to me. It seems like we have a cultural expectation at work here and then trying to find a way to make the Bible fit those cultural expectations.
 

justaname

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In D.A. Carson's book, Exegetical Fallacies second edition he speaks briefly to this topic and to a certain fallacy.

Failure to recognize distinctions
The fallacy that argues that because x and y are alike in certain respects they are alike in all respects.

The Bible does teach in Gal. 3:28 there is no male or female, yet does that mean they are alike in every respect? Women in Christ still bear children where men do not...
The context of Gal. 3:28 shows the concern is justification. Neither male nor female enjoys any special advantage, each is acquitted by grace through faith. Paul did write other passages (1 Cor. 14:33b-36; 1 Tim. 2:11-15) which seem to impose distinctions between the roles of male and female in the church.

Carson furthers to say..."a very good case can be made from New Testament evidence that a distinction was drawn between the gift of prophecy, which men and women could equally enjoy, and the church-recognized teaching authority over men, which only men could discharge." (cf. James B Hurley, Man and Woman in Biblical Perspective; Stephen B. Clark, Man and Woman in Christ: An Examination of the Roles of Men and Women in the Light of Scripture and the Social Sciences; Wayne A. Grudem, The Gift of Prophecy in 1 Corinthians)
 

Barrd

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Wormwood said:
My point is not that God does not use our ministries, but that our obedience is much more important to God than our sacrifice. The Kingdom of God and its existence does not hinge on your home group, nor my local church. When we look at the churches in Revelation, Jesus was ready to snuff some of them out because of their lack of obedience. It is more important to God that we obey him than we serve him. I can give the church a million dollars a year, but if I am obtaining that wealth by oppressing and mistreating people, it is better that I stop my wrongdoing than continue to give a lot of money and do it in a way that is dishonorable. Jesus told people to leave their gifts and be reconciled first. God does not want our gifts if we are being disobedient. Our service is meaningless if we do not do it in a way that honors Him and His Word. That was my point.


“Let a woman learn quietly with all submissiveness. I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet. For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor.” (1 Timothy 2:11–14, ESV)

I would say that these verses expresses the will of God in the assembly of believers. So while you may have gifts from God that he desires you to use in various capacities, his expressed will is that teaching in the assembly of believers is not what he desires of you. I am not comfortable just dismissing these verses or finding a way to show that they are extremely limited in their scope and purpose when the context, grammar and history of the Church for 2,000 years suggests no such thing.

So I guess my question to you is: "Do you think that these verses are not God's will or that billions of Christians for 2,000 years did not understand them?"


I am not comparing the act of a woman teaching with a homosexual act. As I have tried to explain a couple times, the same hermeneutical principles that are employed to allow people to dismiss 1 Cor 14, Eph. 5, 1 Tim 2 and other verses are the very principles incorporated to suggest that homosexual prohibitions in the NT really only applied to specific cultures or abuses in the practice. For me, this is about how we read the Bible, not about suggesting the act of a woman teaching and homosexuality are the same. I hope that makes better sense.

Also, I think you are very mistaken with the notion that because none of us are "without sin" that this means we should allow homosexuals to be elders and teachers. Why not allow rapists to be bishops and overseers? Why not murderers? The idea that suggests that we all sin, therefore who are we to say someone else cannot serve is both prominent and dangerous in our churches today. Paul lists character traits for elders and deacons for a reason. They are to be examples of holiness and exhibit the patience, love and godliness that other Christians should seek to follow. Why have standards at all if we are just going to say, "Well we all sin so lets just let people do whatever they want." I doubt that is what you are saying, but that is how this type of logic works itself out in our churches today. We are to strive for holiness and we see Paul rebuking and having people thrown out of the fellowship because of unrepentant sexual sin. We most certainly are not to wink at such matters or act as if because we all sin that therefore no standards should exist. The Bible teaches quite the opposite. We should take the commands of God seriously and we show we love him through our obedience. To suggest we can love him and ignore his commands is contrary to the very words of Jesus.



I never claimed Scripture said you couldnt pray (or prophesy) publicly or out loud. We see people prophesying all the time in public settings in the NT. However, there is a difference in praying or prophesying publicly and doing this in the assembly of believers. When there is a formal assembly of Christians in an area that meets under the guidance of elders, this is when the Bible calls women to be silent as an act of worship and honor to God and not take the role of a leader or teacher. When Christians are not meeting formally, then certainly women prophesied and prayed and even taught others (such as Aquilla and Priscilla). Yet, it is clear both in the Bible and in church history that they did not do this in the assembly of believers. It was seen as offensive to God and was never practiced. Again, I would just want to know from you what you think you have learned that suggests that 2,000 years of Church practice and teaching is errant and the seemingly clear teaching of the NT on this matter actually not only does not condemn, but actually affirms this practice. I have seen no arguments from anyone on this board or in recent scholarship that actually gives any positive affirmation of this practice. The only thing I have seen is attempts to lessen the significance of words, make commands contextual to a particular setting (even though they reference the law and creation as rationale) or make arguments from silence. None of which are convincing to me. It seems like we have a cultural expectation at work here and then trying to find a way to make the Bible fit those cultural expectations.
I'm sure that you are aware that the Bible mentions several female leaders. My favorite, of course, is Deborah, who led Israel as her Judge, and who was also a prophet...and evidently a warrior. I was actually named for her.
There were others, of course, but you know that.

But there is no point in talking about the great women of the Old Testament. What we want to know is, were there female leaders in the early Church?
Does the Bible mention any?
Here is a list:

From http://www.religioustolerance.org/femclrg5.htm#chr_ex

Women in the Christian Scriptures (New Testament):
These are important passages because some Christian denominations refuse to ordain women, citing as a reason that Jesus only chose male apostles. The Roman Catholic Church has repeatedly stated that it does not have the authority to ordain women as priests for that reason.
  • Acts 9:36 The author of Luke referred to a female disciple of Jesus by her Aramaic name Tabitha, who was also known by her Greek name Dorcas. She became sick had died; St. Peter brought her back to life.
  • Acts 21:8: Philip the evangelist had four unmarried daughters who were prophets.
  • Philippians 4:2: Paul refers to two women, Euodia and Syntyche, as his co-workers who were active evangelicals, spreading the gospel.
  • Romans 16:1: Paul refers to Phoebe as a minister or deacon of the church at Cenchrea. The Greek word which describes her function is "diakonos" which means literally "official servant." She is the only deacon in the Bible to be identified by name. Some translations say "deaconess;" others try to obscure her position by mistranslating the Greek as a simple "servant" or "helper". Paul later refers to Phoebe as a woman, calling her "our sister." This prevented later church leaders from hiding her gender as they did with Junia by changing her name and implying that she was a man.
  • Romans 16:3: Paul refers to Priscilla as another of his "fellow workers in Christ Jesus" (NIV) Other translations refer to her as a "co-worker". But other translations attempt to downgrade her status by calling her a "helper". The original Greek word is "synergoi", which literally means "fellow worker" or "colleague." 1 It is worth noting that Paul refers to Priscilla and her husband as "Priscilla and Aquila" in this passage and as "Aquila and Priscilla" in 1 Corinthians 16:19. It would appear that the order is not important to Paul. As in Galatians 3:28, he apparently believed that there is no distinction between male and female among those who have been baptized into Christ.
  • Romans 16:7: Paul refers to a male apostle, Andronicus, and a female apostle, Junia, as "outstanding among the apostles" (NIV) Every Greek and Latin church Father until Giles of Rome (circa 1000 CE) acknowledged that Junia was a woman. 2,3 After that time, various writers and translators of the Bible resorted to various deceptions in order to suppress her gender. For example:
    The Amplified Bible translates this passage as "They are men held in high esteem among the apostles" The Revised Standard Version shows it as "they are men of note among the apostles". The reference to them both being men does not appear in the original Greek text. The word "men" was simply inserted by the translators, apparently because the translators' minds recoiled from the concept of a female apostle.
  • Many translations, including the Amplified Bible, Rheims New Testament, New American Standard Bible, and the New International Version simply picked the letter "s" out of thin air, and converted the original "Junia" (a woman's name) into "Junias" (a male form of "Junia"). Again, it was probably inconceivable to the translators that Paul would recognize a woman as an apostle. Incidentally, there are no Junias' mentioned in ancient literature and inscriptions; it was apparently an unkown and unused name.

For some reason, this list leaves out the female disciples who followed Jesus, just as the men did, and who supported His ministry from their own funds.

Luk 8:1 And it came to pass afterward, that he went throughout every city and village, preaching and shewing the glad tidings of the kingdom of God: and the twelve were with him,
Luk 8:2 And certain women, which had been healed of evil spirits and infirmities, Mary called Magdalene, out of whom went seven devils,
Luk 8:3 And Joanna the wife of Chuza Herod's steward, and Susanna, and many others, which ministered unto him of their substance.

Were they leaders in the early church? It could be argued, I suppose, that there might not have been any early church without them. Anyhow, the Bible doesn't specifically say, but how likely is it that these gals went their ways after the resurrection and had nothing to do with the Great Commission? They thought enough of Jesus to leave their homes to travel with Him (gasp!), and to finance His ministry from their own funds (double gasp!!), and then when the resurrection was all over, they quietly went home? I'd bet my last Jesus fish bumper sticker that is just what they did not do.

There is a lot more on that website about women in the ministry, and I'm tempted to continue to follow it. But I decided that either you are curious enough to do it yourself, or you aren't. I gave you the link http://www.religioustolerance.org/femclrg5.htm#chr_ex.

You asked me:
So I guess my question to you is: "Do you think that these verses are not God's will or that billions of Christians for 2,000 years did not understand them?"
Given that billions of Christians for 2,000 years have been sure that Mary Magdalene was a prostitute, when the Bible says no such thing about her, I'd have to say that, yes, for 2,000 years, those verses have been misunderstood. You are the scholar, WW...I'm just the hack writer from Alabama. So I will ask you...for how many of those 2000 years did the Catholic Church insist that the Bible was only for the clergy? How long before the Bible was made available to just plain folks? Just sayin'.

WW, I feel the same way you do about gay preachers as you do. But think about it. Is the pastor of your church a sinner? I know every member of my own little church would admit to being a sinner. The fact is, whatever church you go to, the guy behind the pulpit, the members of the choir, the guys who bring the offering plate around...right down to that sweet little lady who always sits in the third row with the little bald spot right there...every one of these lovely Christian people is a dirty, rotten sinner. Personally, I would be quite uncomfortable with a gay preacher. But I honestly can't think of a scriptural reason why there shouldn't be gay leaders in the church.

I'm sorry. I believe with all of my heart that, in each of his epistles, Paul addressed situations that were specific to the church he was writing to.
In a town where there is a dangerous cult led by women who hold life and death power over every man in their sphere of influence, I'd have to agree with Paul that allowing a woman from that area to hold authority over men would be a very bad idea.
Given that men and women would be separated during the worship, just as they had been used to in the Temple, I'd also have to agree with him that, in a harbor town, it would be a good idea to tell these rowdy gals not to be hollering at their husbands and disrupting the service. Since Paul doesn't repeat these instructions to any other churches, how would they have known not to let a woman teach or preach? It's not like they could call each other up on the telephone and talk it over.
Yes, I know that the letters did circulate. But that is just the point. Suppose I write a letter to a friend in a crisis marriage. I tell her that I think she should separate from her abusive husband. Does that mean that I think all of my friends should separate from their husbands? Of course not! This is the same thing.

At least, that is The Barrd's opinion.
 

marksman

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The Barrd said:
Read that post once or twice, for yourself, Marksman.
See if you can find your spelling error.

As for my spelling:

G4394 (Strong)

προφητεία

prophēteia

prof-ay-ti'-ah

From G4396 (“prophecy”); prediction (scriptural or other): - prophecy, prophesying.

Total KJV occurrences: 19


Did you notice the term prophecy?
Just exactly the way I spelled it.
Hmmmmmm......

As I said elsewhere you are always right...even when you are wrong.

Let's start with your spelling error. But if I am going to prophecy....is in fact "But if I am going to prophesy..." The correct spelling is "prophesy...not prophecy."

“Prophecy,” the noun, (pronounced “PROF-a-see”) is a prediction. The verb “to prophesy” (pronounced “PROF-a-sigh”) means to predict something. When a prophet prophesies he or she utters prophecies.

​As for my spelling mistake, it was deliberate and in your haste to correct me as you usually do, you did not see the obvious.
 

Barrd

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marksman said:
As I said elsewhere you are always right...even when you are wrong.

Let's start with your spelling error. But if I am going to prophecy....is in fact "But if I am going to prophesy..." The correct spelling is "prophesy...not prophecy."

“Prophecy,” the noun, (pronounced “PROF-a-see”) is a prediction. The verb “to prophesy” (pronounced “PROF-a-sigh”) means to predict something. When a prophet prophesies he or she utters prophecies.

​As for my spelling mistake, it was deliberate and in your haste to correct me as you usually do, you did not see the obvious.
Very amusing.
You found a variant.

Here it is from Merriam Webster
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/prophecy




prophecy

noun proph·e·cy \ˈprä-fə-sē\

Simple Definition of prophecy
Popularity: Top 40% of words



  • : a statement that something will happen in the future

  • : the power or ability to know what will happen in the future







Full Definition of prophecy
plural proph·e·cies also proph·e·sies


  1. 1 : an inspired utterance of a prophet

  2. 2 : the function or vocation of a prophet; specifically : the inspired declaration of divine will and purpose

  3. 3 : a prediction of something to come


See prophecy defined for English-language learners
See prophecy defined for kids





Variants of prophecy
also proph·e·sy play \ˈprä-fə-sē\



Examples of prophecy


  1. The prophecies of the author have all come true.

  2. She has the gift of prophecy.




Origin of prophecy

Middle English prophecie, from Anglo-French, from Late Latin prophetia, from Greek prophēteia, from prophētēs prophet
First Known Use: 13th century







Related to prophecy

Synonyms auguring, augury, bodement, cast, forecast, forecasting, foretelling, predicting, presaging, prognosis, prognostic, prognosticating, prognostication, prediction (also prophesy), soothsaying, vaticination Related Words foreboding, harbinger, omen, portent, prevision, prospectus, sign; anticipation, foreknowledge; foresight; conjecture, guess, surmise






PROPHECY Defined for Kids



Sorry, Marksman. I could pull up several more dictionary sites, but why waste everyone's time?
PROPHECY is the correct spelling.
PROPHESY is a variant.
In your haste to correct me, you didn't bother to look the word up. Perhaps next time, you'll know better.



LOL...of course, you made a spelling error on purpose. I'm so sure. You're so cute...
 

marksman

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The Barrd said:
Very amusing.
You found a variant.

Here it is from Merriam Webster
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/prophecy




prophecy

noun proph·e·cy \ˈprä-fə-sē\

Simple Definition of prophecy
Popularity: Top 40% of words



  • : a statement that something will happen in the future

  • : the power or ability to know what will happen in the future







Full Definition of prophecy
plural proph·e·cies also proph·e·sies


  1. 1 : an inspired utterance of a prophet

  2. 2 : the function or vocation of a prophet; specifically : the inspired declaration of divine will and purpose

  3. 3 : a prediction of something to come


See prophecy defined for English-language learners
See prophecy defined for kids





Variants of prophecy
also proph·e·sy play \ˈprä-fə-sē\



Examples of prophecy


  1. The prophecies of the author have all come true.

  2. She has the gift of prophecy.




Origin of prophecy

Middle English prophecie, from Anglo-French, from Late Latin prophetia, from Greek prophēteia, from prophētēs prophet
First Known Use: 13th century







Related to prophecy

Synonyms auguring, augury, bodement, cast, forecast, forecasting, foretelling, predicting, presaging, prognosis, prognostic, prognosticating, prognostication, prediction (also prophesy), soothsaying, vaticination Related Words foreboding, harbinger, omen, portent, prevision, prospectus, sign; anticipation, foreknowledge; foresight; conjecture, guess, surmise






PROPHECY Defined for Kids



Sorry, Marksman. I could pull up several more dictionary sites, but why waste everyone's time?
PROPHECY is the correct spelling.
PROPHESY is a variant.
In your haste to correct me, you didn't bother to look the word up. Perhaps next time, you'll know better.



LOL...of course, you made a spelling error on purpose. I'm so sure. You're so cute...
Yes, why waste your time. You have made it clear that you are the resident expert on all things biblical and if anyone disagrees with you, you will spend an inordinate amount of time and posting to show your superiority in all things. The fact that you are perfect and do not make any mistakes shows us what perfection is all about so we have an example to follow, so if we want to be perfect, we have to know more than you do so that we can correct you whenever you post anything.

Just as matter of interest, Prophecy is a noun, prophesy is a verb. A verb is never a variant. I am surprised you didn't know that.
 

Barrd

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marksman said:
Yes, why waste your time. You have made it clear that you are the resident expert on all things biblical and if anyone disagrees with you, you will spend an inordinate amount of time and posting to show your superiority in all things. The fact that you are perfect and do not make any mistakes shows us what perfection is all about so we have an example to follow, so if we want to be perfect, we have to know more than you do so that we can correct you whenever you post anything.

Just as matter of interest, Prophecy is a noun, prophesy is a verb. A verb is never a variant. I am surprised you didn't know that.
Thank you for the grammar lesson.
:rolleyes:
 

marksman

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The Barrd said:
Thank you for the grammar lesson.
:rolleyes:
Your welcome. Having taught English to school students I tend to know what I am talking about although I know you find that hard to stomach.
 

marksman

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Wormwood said:
The fact is, since feminism sprouted a few decades ago, there have been tons of attempts to show that these texts are cultural, that "submission" is only mutual, and that the authority Paul is referring to is only abusive authority. However, there has been nothing to substantiate these claims. They are embraced, not because they have any historical or linguistic substance, but because it is what our culture wants to hear and it appeases modern sensibilities. Trust me, I would love to embrace this doctrine as a Western thinker and as an American. However, there is just no true Biblical warrant for it. The church never believed this and there is no real contextual or linguistic evidence that suggests we should alter 2,000 years of church understanding and practice.
​Well said Wormwood. We are in a period of revised versions of revised versions of the bible and most of them are done to accommodate western and feminist thinking and give credence for those things that God has no part of. None is more obvious than the Queen Janes Bible that says homosexuality is approved by God and does not bar one from salvation.

So far we have not had anything so blatant as that with the feminist interpretation of the bible but do not be surprised if and when such blatant claims are claims to be gospel truth and those who disagree are branded female phobic. Funny that as I have a wife, a daughter and seven granddaughters who I love so much I could not be female phobic even if I wanted to be.

And my daughter gave me a mug for Christmas which said "The Best Dad Ever." I wonder why she thinks that if I am female phobic.
 

marksman

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The Barrd said:
WW...I'm sorry, but I have to ask you...are you seriously comparing women in ministry to homosexuals? Honestly?
Can a homosexual teach men in a corporate setting, WW? I would say "no"...however, I do not recall any specific prohibition against it. Yes, they are sinning...but which of us can stand and say that we are without sin? If being a sinner means a person can't teach, then we are all in the deep stuff.
My point, of course, is that we need to use a bit of what I like to call "uncommon sense".
​The more we go one, the more you are getting yourself out of line. As someone said what has homosexuality got to do with the discussion? if you or anyone doesn't think that it does, you cannot make a point based on such a concept.

Just one small point in making your comparison. Being a woman is not a sin. Being a homosexual is so there are no comparisons between the two as to who should or should not teach.

And.....there is no specific prohibition on a wife beater teaching......
 

StanJ

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Of course. That is why your argument confuses me. The NIV84, NIV, NRSV, ESV, NASB, KJV, The Message, and every other version I have ever seen translates these passages as "woman" and not "wife." So I guess it is on you to show how all these translators got it wrong.
I never said THEY got it wrong, I said you did. The context determines what the Greek means, and so does the English IF you accept what it says IN the context of where it is mentioned.

Well if you could point to one sentence that specifically suggests the home life, then I would try not to be so stubborn. It is just hard for me to acknowledge an argument from silence. Paul has no problem indicating he is talking about marriage in Eph. 5 as he uses the possessive ἑαυτῶν γυναῖκας (their wives/women) and γυναῖκες τοῖς ἰδίοις ἀνδράσιν (wives their own husbands/men). He uses no such pronouns here which is why no translation uses "wife" and he cites an OT passage that is never translated "wife." Seriously Stan, if we consider there are 50 to 100 translators for each of these major translation (not including The Message) then you need to show me why hundreds of Greek scholars got this wrong and seemingly no one got it right. I dont know how I am the one being stubborn when I am simply agreeing with the translation of every well known Bible on the market today.
and yet you are able to infer it into the corporate setting even though it is NOT directed to the corporate church but to Timothy? That's rather convenient for you isn't it? Chapter 1 v2 & 18 shows Paul greeting his SON in the faith, NOT the pastor of the local church. NOTHING in chapter 2, either openly or covertly, can be construed as talking about rules of the CORPORATE church, as IS the case in 1 Cor 14, which you continually ignore and refuse to address. Why is that?

I dont know what you are talking about here. Both verse 8 and 11 are clearly referring to deacons. "In the same way/likewise, deacons must be...." That is how verse 8 starts. It is referring to deacons, not overseers. The point is that even if the qualities in verses 1-7 apply to deacons, Paul does not say, "Wives/women must be dignified...." when referring to elders. There is no ambiguity as to whether or not Paul could be referring to women elders as there is when he speaks about deacons. So whether you view the qualifications in verses 1-7 as additional or separate, it doesnt mean the qualifications in verses 8ff revert back and refer to elders as well. I know of no one who would argue this.
No, v8 and v11 are referring to 1-7. How can v8 refer to something it mentions subsequently? The Greek grammatical rules show that it would refer to v1-7.

Goodness, Stan. Are you trying to argue that the word means "obedience" and not "submission"? How exactly does this help your argument or make this word not one of subjection and being under the authority of another? It just seems you are deflecting at this point.
You are confused because I won't accept your equivocal assertion of because you don't understand? I suggest you read back about this PARTICULAR point and not try to obfuscate the point. YOU are the one that has been widening the definition and now you want to broaden it?


Seems to me you are deflecting from the issue of submission by trying to make the word seem like it doesnt carry that connotation. The word means submission, period. It does not NOT mean submission. There is no sense in which this word means not submitting or not being under the authority of another. No one said women were to submit involuntarily. Of course it is voluntary. We arent talking slavery here. What is your point? Do you believe women should be submissive to men or not?
Why don't you just accept what it says and try not to redefine it as you have been here? I'm only addressing your constant equivocal responses, but it seems you are bound and determine to keep the waters muddy in this regard? You're right, no one said ANYTHING about involuntary, so why make it a point that is was NOT? If that is not equivocation or deflection, I don't know what is.
 

StanJ

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I advised Stan to put you on ignore...and he did.
Good for him!
Now, I need to take my own good advice.
I agree, and as a matter of fact I seem to recall I recommended that to you, long before I put him on my ignore list?
 

Wormwood

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Stan,

Clearly you are saying the translators got it wrong. You are saying it applies only to wives in the home, and should be translated as """wives" not women. Clearly this makes a huge difference if Paul is exclusively addressing wives in the home setting rather than women in the church setting. However, the translations all use the word "women" not wives, and therefore do not allow for the exclusive parameters you want to assign for these verses. Again, if it was so clear Paul was referring to wives only (as in Eph 5), then one would think the translators would have picked up on this. Yet every translation uses "women" and therefore gives no indication to the English reader that Paul is being exclusive here...and they do that for a reason. He isn't exclusively talking to wives.

The context is very clear in 1 Timothy. I am not the one ignoring it. Paul starts the letter by explaining why he left Timothy in Ephesus and that was to put the church there in order (1 Tim. 1:3). The entire letter is instructions pertaining to this task. Paul and Timothy are charging them to change what is taking place (1 Tim. 1:5), encourage Timothy to fight this spiritual battle against the false teachers in this fellowship (1 Tim. 1:18), encourage the body to pray for leaders, women to dress modestly and not teach (1 Tim. 2) appoint godly elders and deacons (1 Tim. 3), encourage Timothy to command and teach sound doctrine (1 Tim. 4:11) so he can save himself and his hearers (1 Tim. 4:13) and instructions about how to handle rebukes and care for widows (1 Tim. 5), and to warn him about teachers who are after money and are involved in irreverent babble (1 Tim. 6).

The context of this entire letter is so evident that I am at a loss for how to even respond to this notion of yours that there is no proof that Paul is talking about the gathering of the church. I mean, Paul even tells us why he is writing the letter to Timothy in chapter 3. He says,

14 I hope to come to you soon, but I am writing these things to you so that, 15 if I delay, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, a pillar and buttress of the truth."

Everything in this letter screams that Paul is talking about Timothy dealing with a wayward church and putting proper leadership in order and guiding them in right practices and behaviors. Nothing here suggests Paul is talking generally about the Christian life and how families should behave. Why would Paul tell Timothy about how wives are to behave at home? It makes no sense. He doesn't mention home life, but rather, consistently talks about this fellowship of believers, the problems they are facing, the need they have for leadership and how Timothy should go about changing things and getting things in order. I think you can look at any study's bible or reference work on the letters background and see this is how everyone sees this letter. You don't need to take my word for my word for it.

Stan, I know NT Greek and have no idea what you are talking about. Can you quote a Greek scholar from whom you are getting these ideas about how the qualifications for deacons influence the prior qualifications for elders based on Greek grammar? Maybe they word it in a way that makes more sense to me.
 

StanJ

Lifelong student of God's Word.
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Clearly you are saying the translators got it wrong. You are saying it applies only to wives in the home, and should be translated as """wives" not women. Clearly this makes a huge difference if Paul is exclusively addressing wives in the home setting rather than women in the church setting. However, the translations all use the word "women" not wives, and therefore do not allow for the exclusive parameters you want to assign for these verses. Again, if it was so clear Paul was referring to wives only (as in Eph 5), then one would think the translators would have picked up on this. Yet every translation uses "women" and therefore gives no indication to the English reader that Paul is being exclusive here...and they do that for a reason. He isn't exclusively talking to wives.
NO, I am NOT. I am saying you don't get the context. I am NOT a translator, and don't have a degree. But I get the context of what Paul is addressing, and as it does NOT show the corporate setting, it cannot be taken as such. IF it does, then SHOW me where it conveys direction to a local church. Are you also advocating women cannot be a Sunday School teacher to an adult class?

The context is very clear in 1 Timothy. I am not the one ignoring it. Paul starts the letter by explaining why he left Timothy in Ephesus and that was to put the church there in order (1 Tim. 1:3). The entire letter is instructions pertaining to this task. Paul and Timothy are charging them to change what is taking place (1 Tim. 1:5), encourage Timothy to fight this spiritual battle against the false teachers in this fellowship (1 Tim. 1:18), encourage the body to pray for leaders, women to dress modestly and not teach (1 Tim. 2) appoint godly elders and deacons (1 Tim. 3), encourage Timothy to command and teach sound doctrine (1 Tim. 4:11) so he can save himself and his hearers (1 Tim. 4:13) and instructions about how to handle rebukes and care for widows (1 Tim. 5), and to warn him about teachers who are after money and are involved in irreverent babble (1 Tim. 6).
He was there to refute false teaches WW....even the verse you quote here states that. So why would you mislead us by saying he was there to put the church in order? As a matter of fact, Mounce says in his book on the Pastoral Epistles, that Paul here COMMANDS Timothy, παραγγέλλω(parangellō),{here is where Paul actually uses a military term} CERTAIN people....NOT the church as you claim.

The context of this entire letter is so evident that I am at a loss for how to even respond to this notion of yours that there is no proof that Paul is talking about the gathering of the church. I mean, Paul even tells us why he is writing the letter to Timothy in chapter 3. He says,
14 I hope to come to you soon, but I am writing these things to you so that, 15 if I delay, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, a pillar and buttress of the truth."
It is apparent that you ARE at a loss, because instead of reading this IN the context of the CORPUS, you read it in the context of the corporate gathering. The church, CORPUS, is the household of the living God(individually each of us is the temple of the Holy Spirit).

Everything in this letter screams that Paul is talking about Timothy dealing with a wayward church and putting proper leadership in order and guiding them in right practices and behaviors. Nothing here suggests Paul is talking generally about the Christian life and how families should behave. Why would Paul tell Timothy about how wives are to behave at home? It makes no sense. He doesn't mention home life, but rather, consistently talks about this fellowship of believers, the problems they are facing, the need they have for leadership and how Timothy should go about changing things and getting things in order. I think you can look at any study's bible or reference work on the letters background and see this is how everyone sees this letter. You don't need to take my word for my word for it.
Actually MOUNCE teaches in his book on the Pastoral Epistles, WORD BIBLICAL COMMENTARY Vol 46, pages 120-130, that he is addressing CERTAIN false TEACHERS in Ephesus, NOT the everyday church. The submission Paul advocates is the same submission Eve was to have with Adam as his wife, NOT as a woman. In fact it was even more freeing than ancient Rabbinical teaching where the women were not even allowed to LEARN the Torah.
Bottom line is that this was NOT address in respect of corporate assembly, but in the overall Christian community , as the admonition for men lifting Holy Hands and women dressing modestly was NOT just for the corporate assembly, but everyday life.

Stan, I know NT Greek and have no idea what you are talking about. Can you quote a Greek scholar from whom you are getting these ideas about how the qualifications for deacons influence the prior qualifications for elders based on Greek grammar? Maybe they word it in a way that makes more sense to me.
I don't know what you mean by KNOW WW. Are you a credentialed Greek scholar or have you just dabbled in Greek?
Again I suggest you read Mounce's book that I have cited above. He confirms other scholars, Fee and Cranfield, that agree with this interpolation of v8 & 11 by referring to Phoebe in Rom 16:1.
 

tom55

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The Barrd said:
I love watching, as you scholars thrash these things out. It is amazing, the things a poor hack writer from Alabama can learn from you guys.
Please, never stop teaching us.
But I gotta tell you...it was enough for me to know that, in Christ, those old barriers are broken down.

Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

(I'm just real glad to know that the scholars agree with Him.)
You forgot to put your reference to scripture in context. In verse 27 it says, "for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ". That means all who were baptized as new Christians, male or female, free or slave, are now Christians. The apostles held women and slaves and Jews and greek in much higher esteem than in former Jewish religion which is what that passage (Gal 3:28) means. Clearly MANY other passages of scripture show that a woman can not be an elder, priest, deacon or leader of a church. They do have important roles, but not as leader of a church. SOME barrier were broken down, not all.
 

Barrd

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tom55 said:
You forgot to put your reference to scripture in context. In verse 27 it says, "for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ". That means all who were baptized as new Christians, male or female, free or slave, are now Christians. The apostles held women and slaves and Jews and greek in much higher esteem than in former Jewish religion which is what that passage (Gal 3:28) means. Clearly MANY other passages of scripture show that a woman can not be an elder, priest, deacon or leader of a church. They do have important roles, but not as leader of a church. SOME barrier were broken down, not all.
So, you do not believe that a woman could be an apostle?

Rom 16:7 Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me.

Junia is a girl's name.

And what of the women who were Jesus' disciples, who financed the ministry from their own funds?

What will you make of the Catacombs of Priscilla?
http://www.bbc.com/culture/story/20150224-the-secrets-of-the-catacombs

I had to giggle when I read the bit about someone rubbing the paint off of one face in the hope of making it look more masculine, as if the figure had a beard.
Anything....anything at all, to try to keep the gals in their proper place, yeah?

And where are these "MANY" passages? Other than a couple of lines from letters to Timothy, who was trying to pastor a church in Ephesus, where he had to contend with the cult of Diana, and to the church in the seaport city of Corinth, I do not see these "MANY" passages.
I certainly do not see anything from Jesus, Who spoke face to face with women just as He did with men...

I've said it before, but it bears repeating...if you guys really wanted to keep women in the kitchen, you should never have let us learn how to read...
 

marksman

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The Barrd said:
What I find hard to stomach is you, Marksman.
I had not made a spelling error...you had. I had spelled prophecy correctly. You misspelled the word "properly", rather badly, as I recall....and you've been two days trying to shift your error unto me.
And now, you want to tell me that you taught English? Please.
Your attitude is insufferable.
I advised Stan to put you on ignore...and he did.
Good for him!
Now, I need to take my own good advice
Here we go again. prophecy is a noun. prophesy is a verb. You spelt the verb as a noun which I showed you with an extract from a dictionary so if I am wrong all the dictionaries are wrong.

And once again my spelling error was deliberate to see if you noticed it. You did but what you seem to have not noticed was the fact that I told you the error was deliberate. I guess you avoided that as it meant you can keep banging on about the spelling error.

​So let me say it once again. My spelling error was deliberate, not a mistake.

And once again you have called me a liar so I shall report you for your unchristian attitude and comment which has led you to attack me once again.
 

StanJ

Lifelong student of God's Word.
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So, you do not believe that a woman could be an apostle?
The scholar Dr. Daniel Wallace has extensively researched the Greek grammar of the phrase: “In sum, until further evidence is produced that counters the working hypothesis, we must conclude that Andronicus and Junia were not apostles, but were known to the apostles” (from http://bible.org/article/junia-among-apostles-double-identification-problem-romans-167).

I have to concur with Professor Wallace...she was NOT an apostle, but she was a Christian before Paul and taught just as he did, plus she was imprisoned as he was.
 

Barrd

His Humble Servant
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StanJ said:
The scholar Dr. Daniel Wallace has extensively researched the Greek grammar of the phrase: “In sum, until further evidence is produced that counters the working hypothesis, we must conclude that Andronicus and Junia were not apostles, but were known to the apostles” (from http://bible.org/article/junia-among-apostles-double-identification-problem-romans-167).

I have to concur with Professor Wallace...she was NOT an apostle, but she was a Christian before Paul and taught just as he did, plus she was imprisoned as he was.
Here is a very interesting article about Junia:
http://www.patheos.com/blogs/slacktivist/2012/01/27/when-the-bias-of-our-blinders-changes-the-bible/

The bulk of this article was written by Gary Wills, who is is Professor of History Emeritus at ­Northwestern. He is the author, most recently, of The Future of the Catholic Church with Pope Francis. (February 2016)

The article also mentions Scot McKnight. He is another scholar, who is currently Professor of New Testament at Northern Baptist Theological Seminary in Lombard, Illinois.

It includes the words of a man named John Chrysostom, who was Archbishop of Canterbury during the late fourth and early fifth centuries:
For Junia to be included not only among the emissaries but among the outstanding (episemoi) ones was a high honor, as John Chrysostom recognized in his commentary on Romans: “How great this woman’s love of wisdom (philosophia) must have been, to merit her inclusion among the apostles.”

Yes, Virginia, there were female apostles...