Here's some data on John 10:33

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Kermos

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Had the translators rendered the Greek text in verse 33 as they did in verse 34 and 35, then it would read, "...you, a man, claim to be a god." In the next two verses, John 10:34 and 35, the exact same word (theos, without the article) is translated as "god" and not "God." In Acts 12:22, Herod is called theos without the article, so the translators translate it "god." The same is true in Acts 28:6, when Paul had been bitten by a viper and the people expected him to die. When he did not die, "...they changed their minds and said he was a god." Since theos has no article, and since it is clear from the context that the reference is not about the true God, theos is translated "a god." It is a general principle that theos without the article should be "a god," or "divine."

Your post is very suggestive of John 1:1 as well.

John's intensity and amplification by reinforcing God with "the God, and God" in John 1:1.

Let's examine the Apostle John's words "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1, in Greek "Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος").

POINT 1: significance of "the God, and God" in Greek.

Of the three clauses in John 1:1, the transition between the 2nd and 3rd clause is "τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς" which is word-for-word English as "the God, and God".

In this passage we have the word "God" (θεόν) preceeded by the definite article "the" (τὸν) with the same word "God" (θεόν) followed by the conjunction "and" (καὶ) in turn followed by the word "God" (θεὸς) in anathrous (no definite article), essentially, "τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς" which is word-for-word English as "the God, and God".

The sequence employed by John is significant because John reinforces with intensity and amplification the usage of the word "God" with John's repetition of the word "God".

It is well established that the Jews repeat things to intensify, amplify, reinforce, and emphasize a point being made.

The Apostle wonderfully binds the word "God" (θεόν) and the word "God" (θεὸς) in a harmony of One - the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) which includes the person of the Word of God (John 1:1, John 1:14).

John clearly means the One True God, the God Most High, YHWH God (Deuteronomy 6:4), for both instances of "God" in John 1:1 because John uses the word "God" in tandem in the verse.

In Truth (John 14:6), John uses both occurrences of "God" in John 1:1 as equivalent terms.

This means that the Apostle John is calling the Word (the Word is Jesus, John 1:1, John 1:14) "God"!

POINT 2: John confesses One True God.

John knew of the commandant "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3); therefore, John referred to Jesus as YHWH God (θεὸς) with "the Word was God" in John 1:1 because John would not violate the commandment.

John has no gods before YHWH God, that is, Jesus is YHWH God according to the words of the Apostle John.

John knew that God is One (Deuteronomy 6:4), and John made it clear that Jesus is the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) in John 1:1.

This means that the Apostle John confesses Jesus, the Word of God, is everlasting "God"!

POINT 3: another anathrous occurrence of the word "God" (Θεὸν) in John 1.

"No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him" (John 1:18, in Greek "Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς Θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ Πατρὸς, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο").

Recall, anathrous means a noun without an article, such as, in English, "the" for a definite article or "a" for an indefinite article.

The first occurrence of "God" (Θεὸν) in John 1:18 refers to YHWH God, yet this word "God" (Θεὸν) is anathrous, that is, there is no article, in like manner to there is no article for the word "God" (θεὸς) with "the Word was God" in John 1:1.

A Greek language semantic similarity exists between John 1:1 and the Septuagint's Nahum 1:2 in that each of these verses employ an anathrous Θεὸς (God) noun. Nahum 1:2 in the Septuagint contains an anathrous Θεὸς (God) referring to the One True God, YHWH. Here is the Greek "Θεὸς ζηλωτὴς καὶ ἐκδικῶν κύριος, ἐκδικῶν κύριος µετὰ θυµοῦ ἐκδικῶν κύριος τοὺς ὑπεναντίους αὐτοῦ, καὶ ἐξαίρων αὐτὸς τοὺς ἐχθροὺς αὐτοῦ" (Nahum 1:2) for which the Septuagint translated to English is "God is jealous, and Lord is punishing; Lord is punishing with rage; Lord is punishing his adversaries, and lifting away himself of his enemies" (Nahum 1:2) - clearly Θεὸς (God) refers to the One True God, YHWH God (Deuteronomy 6:4).

Behold, Θεὸς (God) in Nahum 1:2 is the same word as θεὸς (God) in John 1:1!

Truly, the anathrous word "God" (Θεὸν/θεὸς) in John 1:18 and John 1:1 refers to YHWH God.

This means that the Apostle John proclaims the Word of God integrally is YHWH God!!!

POINT 4: English usage of a noun without a definite article ("the") nor an indefinite article ("a" or "an")

This example illustrates the English language's flexibility to use a noun with an article or without an article.

One full apple pie in a pie tin sliced into 3 equal size pieces remains to be one pie for sale in a baked goods display cabinet.

The three pieces of pie are the one pie.

One piece of the pie is pie.

The word "one" means one, yet the degree of the focal point may vary; in other words, the layer of abstraction can change for a given person, place, or thing.

While this prelude portion of the example of the word "one" establishes a point of reference for the words of Jesus recorded in John 10:30 and John 17:21-23, now I move on to present another example by expanding the previous example to apply to John 1:1 through the next paragraph's dialog between a mom and her son.

The mommy asked "did you eat pie before dinner?", and Josiah answered "I ate one slice of pie at Levi's house."

Notice, the mommy used the noun "pie" without an article, not a definite article (the) nor an indefinite article (a or an).

The mom refers to the one actual pie including the three individual pieces, and the language frame is similar to John's use of the word "God" in anathrous within John 1:1.

The Apostle John refers to the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) including the person of the Word with his words of "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).

The second occurrence of the word "God" in John 1:1 is undeniably and truthfully the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4).

Analogies can have a point of failure, but the above firmly proves the point in Truth (John 14:6).

CONCLUSION 1 (relates to POINT 1 above):

Mere human understanding cannot understand the harmony of the word "God" (θεόν) and the word "God" (θεὸς) in John 1:1, so the hearts of unregenerate souls tear the Word of God down from Deity into a mere man; therefore, the fleshly souls persist in a state of damnation.

The Holy Spirit reveals the glorious harmony recorded in John 1:1 which declares Jesus is the One True God!

CONCLUSION 2 (relates to POINT 2 above):

John is not going to refer Jesus as God resulting in two gods.

People who subtract the fullness of "God" (θεὸς) in John 1:1 have more than one God because they say that John 1:1 contains "the Word was a god".

Since such people contend that Jesus is "a god", then they have more than one god which places them in violation of "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3).

According to their heart's treasure, they claim to have YHWH God + Jesus a god = two gods.

CONCLUSION 3 (relates to POINT 3 above):

The anathrous Greek word for "God" translates to meaning YHWH God elsewhere besides John 1:1 in the New Testament, for example the first occurrence of the word "God" in John 1:18 does not have an article where the word "God" means YHWH God - in like manner to John 1:1.

People that claim Jesus is created and that Jesus is not YHWH God deny the Word of God.

CONCLUSION 4 (addressing the scope exceeding claim that there are many gods with respect to the New Testament)

The Greek word θεὸς (Strong's 2316 - also Θεὸν - Theos, theos [transliteration] - God, Deity, god, deity [English]) can be dependent upon surrounding grammar and context.

The Greek word ἄγγελος (Strong's 32 - aggelos [transliteration] - messenger, angel [English]) is the parlance for angel in the New Testament, and the word θεὸς (God) is never used to refer to an ἄγγελος (angel) in the New Testament.

In the 27 books of the New Testament, the word "god" is used in one of two ways.

The first way is in the good sense which is in reference to YHWH, and I prefer a capital "G" for the good sense, like this, YHWH God.

The second way is in the evil sense which can be in reference to the devil, and I prefer a lower case "g" for the evil sense, like this, the god of this world.

Only two senses for the word "god" exists, and the senses are either good or evil. There is no middle ground.

Of the over 1000 times that the Greek word θεὸς (Strong's 2316 - also Θεὸν - God, god) or it's inflections are used in the New Testament, only the good sense or the evil sense indicated above are represented, as shown in this concordance page blueletterbible.org/lexicon/g2316/nasb95/tr/0-1/, and I reviewed all the included verses to make certain - and θεὸς (God) is not used one time to indicate angels.

The good sense for the word θεὸς (God) applies to Jesus; therefore, John declares Jesus is YHWH God in John 1:1 for only God is good (Mark 10:18).

THE GREEK WORD THEOS (GOD) EXCLUSIVELY REFERS TO THE ONE TRUE GOD (DEUTERONOMY 6:4) IN THE GOOD SENSE IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, SO "IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD, AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD, AND THE WORD WAS GOD" (JOHN 1:1) REFERS TO JESUS AS THE ONE TRUE GOD.
 
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Phoneman777

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Had the translators rendered the Greek text in verse 33 as they did in verse 34 and 35, then it would read, "...you, a man, claim to be a god." In the next two verses, John 10:34 and 35, the exact same word (theos, without the article) is translated as "god" and not "God." In Acts 12:22, Herod is called theos without the article, so the translators translate it "god." The same is true in Acts 28:6, when Paul had been bitten by a viper and the people expected him to die. When he did not die, "...they changed their minds and said he was a god." Since theos has no article, and since it is clear from the context that the reference is not about the true God, theos is translated "a god." It is a general principle that theos without the article should be "a god," or "divine." Since there is no evidence that Jesus was teaching that he was God anywhere in the context, and since the Pharisees would have never believed that this man was somehow Yahweh, it makes no sense that they would be saying that he said he was "God." Now since Jesus was clearly teaching that he was sent by God and was doing God's work. Thus, it makes perfect sense that the Pharisees would say he was claiming to be "a god" or "divine."
What else could He mean in John 10:33 KJV except to say He was equal with God, referring to His Divine Nature being as eternal, as authoritative, as omnipotent, omniscient, and omnipotent as His Father God?

He laid aside His Divine Nature and became human to (1) show us the true Father, which image Satan had marred through long ages of pagan, occult misrepresentation of Him as a blood thirsty, vindictive God, (2) show us how to love God and each other, the result of which is obedience to His commandments, and (3) pay with His life for that which we are completely helpless to pay: our sin debt.

Jesus plainly taught He was the God of the OT, and never more clearly than when He declared, "For if ye believe not that I AM, ye shall die in your sins" ("he" is not in the original GK).
 

Peterlag

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Jesus reveals Himself as truly God and truly Man at His discretion.

As truly Man, Jesus has a Father, and as truly God, Jesus is God and called "Everlasting Father" (Isaiah 9:6).

Jesus Christ is truly Man (Luke 1:26-33) - the Son of Man, and Jesus Christ is truly God (Luke 1:34-35, John 8:58, John 20:28, John 5:18, John 10:30-31) - the Son of God.

Based on this Truth (John 14:6), Jesus Christ can refer to Himself as Man at his discretion and when He deems it is appropriate.

Furthermore. Jesus Christ can refer to Himself as God at his discretion and when He deems it is appropriate.

Here is an instance of Jesus, truly God, saying "I and the Father are One" (John 10:30) in which Jesus speaks in His capacity of God thus including both the person of Jesus and the person of the Father in the One True God.

Here is another instance, this time of Jesus, truly Man, saying "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, 'I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.'" (John 20:17) in which Jesus speaks in His capacity of Man thus including the person of Jesus and His brothers in one (John 17:21). See, the Son of Man being the firstborn of the born of God persons (Romans 8:29, Colossians 1:15, John 3:3-8).

We, children of God, can also refer to Jesus in his capacity as truly God as well as His capacity as truly Man. We can use context to make the distinction.

We, born of the Holy Spirit of God persons (John 3:3-8), are one in God (John 17:21) because of the indwelling Holy Spirit (John 14:16-17), thus God is One. We are the blessed beneficiaries of the Holy Spirit of God's work in us.

People that do not believe that Jesus is God are not beneficiaries of the Holy Spirit of God.

The problem I have with this is that the Bible does not say Jesus is fully God and fully man. In fact, it does not say anywhere that he is God.
 

Peterlag

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What else could He mean in John 10:33 KJV except to say He was equal with God, referring to His Divine Nature being as eternal, as authoritative, as omnipotent, omniscient, and omnipotent as His Father God?

He laid aside His Divine Nature and became human to (1) show us the true Father, which image Satan had marred through long ages of pagan, occult misrepresentation of Him as a blood thirsty, vindictive God, (2) show us how to love God and each other, the result of which is obedience to His commandments, and (3) pay with His life for that which we are completely helpless to pay: our sin debt.

Jesus plainly taught He was the God of the OT, and never more clearly than when He declared, "For if ye believe not that I AM, ye shall die in your sins" ("he" is not in the original GK).

Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” Some theologians teach that only God could pay for the sins of mankind, but the Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).
 

Kermos

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The problem I have with this is that the Bible does not say Jesus is fully God and fully man. In fact, it does not say anywhere that he is God.

You appear to have failed to notice that I did not write "fully God" nor "fully Man".

I wrote "Jesus Christ is truly Man (Luke 1:26-33) - the Son of Man, and Jesus Christ is truly God (Luke 1:34-35, John 8:58, John 20:28, John 5:18, John 10:30-31) - the Son of God".

See the citations.

Actually, the Apostolic testimony is that Jesus is God.

The Apostle Paul calls Jesus "the great God" with "looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of the great God and Savior of us, Christ Jesus" (Titus 2:13).

The Apostle Peter calls Jesus "the God" with "Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours by the righteousness of the God of us and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1).

The Apostle Thomas calls Jesus "my God" wirh "My Lord and my God" (John 20:28).

The Apostle Matthew attests that Jesus is "God with us" Immanuel (Matthew 1:23) thus Jesus is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us the children of God (Revelation 1:8).

The Apostle John calls Jesus "the Word" and "God" with "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).

The Apostle Jesus (Hebrews 3:1) calls Jesus the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) by saying "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) and "I am with you always, even to the end of the age" (Matthew 28:20) thus declaring Himself eternal, and the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) is exclusively eternal; therefore, Jesus declares Himself the One True God, YHWH!

NO SCRIPTURE STATES THAT JESUS WAS CREATED.

Jesus is YHWH God according to consistent Apostolic testimony.
 

Enoch111

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In fact, it does not say anywhere that he is God.
Now you are simply lying through your teeth. It is one thing to say "I do not believe anything in the Bible". It is quite another thing to say "The Bible does not declare that Jesus is God" since that is an OUTRIGHT LIE.
 
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Phoneman777

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Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” Some theologians teach that only God could pay for the sins of mankind, but the Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).
You do realize Jesus was 100% man and 100% God, right?

"The Lord is my shepherd".
Jesus is the "Good Shepherd".
John 11:16 KJV says there's only ONE Shepherd.

"The Lord is my Rock".
"That Rock was Christ."
Psalms 62: 6 KJV says "Thou ONLY art the Rock".

"The Lord is my Judge."
"We must all stand before the Judgment seat of Christ".
John 8:50 says "there is ONE that Judgeth."

Isaiah says the Lord is "the first and the last."
Revelation says Jesus is "the first and the last".
Isaiah says "beside Me (the first and the last) there is no God".

I could go on and on proving Jesus is God Almighty in the highest sense of the word, but it isn't necessary. You think you've cornered some little "truth" - ambiguous at best - disproving the divinity of Jesus, but lay that aside and read the rest of Scripture and you'll see what is plainly taught renders your argument moot.

Regarding that statement at the top: I heard a wise preacher once say if you try to explain it you'll lose your mind, but if you refuse to believe it you'll lose your soul: "Unless ye believe that I AM, ye shall die in your sins." Entire churches refuse to believe, but think they'll die in safety, because they don't know their NWT Bible is based on the corrupt Critical Text Greek NT.

"But unto the Son He saith, Thy throne, O GOD, is forever and ever." - Hebrews 1:8 KJV
 
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Phoneman777

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The problem I have with this is that the Bible does not say Jesus is fully God and fully man. In fact, it does not say anywhere that he is God.
What Bible are you reading?


(100% Man)
"There is one God and one Mediator between God and man, the Man Christ Jesus."

(100% God)
"For if ye believe not that I AM, ye shall die in your sins."
"Before Abraham was, I AM".
"But unto the Son He saith, Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever."
 
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Brakelite

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John went to great pains to write a theology to prove that Jesus was the Son of God. No-one, trinitarian, Arian, or semi-Arian, or even barb-arian, would deny this.
KJV 1 John 5:13
13 These things have I written unto you that believe on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that ye have eternal life, and that ye may believe on the name of the Son of God.

This begs the question of course, if Jesus is the Son of God, did He receive the same nature, that is divine deity type nature, as His Father? Some say yes, some no. But even humans, once born again and adopted, may receive of the same divine nature of God Himself through faith in His Son.
KJV 2 Peter 1:4
4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.

Naturally, this does not make us gods, or Gods, but it does make us God's, and eventually makes us good, yet only God is good, right? so if God's divine nature is ours as a gift, what does that make of the natural born Son who receives that nature by divine right? Who, or what else, can the Son be if not God with a capital G?
 
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Peterlag

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You appear to have failed to notice that I did not write "fully God" nor "fully Man".

I wrote "Jesus Christ is truly Man (Luke 1:26-33) - the Son of Man, and Jesus Christ is truly God (Luke 1:34-35, John 8:58, John 20:28, John 5:18, John 10:30-31) - the Son of God".

See the citations.

Actually, the Apostolic testimony is that Jesus is God.

The Apostle Paul calls Jesus "the great God" with "looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of the great God and Savior of us, Christ Jesus" (Titus 2:13).

The Apostle Peter calls Jesus "the God" with "Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours by the righteousness of the God of us and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1).

The Apostle Thomas calls Jesus "my God" wirh "My Lord and my God" (John 20:28).

The Apostle Matthew attests that Jesus is "God with us" Immanuel (Matthew 1:23) thus Jesus is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us the children of God (Revelation 1:8).

The Apostle John calls Jesus "the Word" and "God" with "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).

The Apostle Jesus (Hebrews 3:1) calls Jesus the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) by saying "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) and "I am with you always, even to the end of the age" (Matthew 28:20) thus declaring Himself eternal, and the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) is exclusively eternal; therefore, Jesus declares Himself the One True God, YHWH!

NO SCRIPTURE STATES THAT JESUS WAS CREATED.

Jesus is YHWH God according to consistent Apostolic testimony.

Where are you on this...
The Bible teaches there is one God, the Father, and one Messiah and Lord, Jesus Christ, who is the divinely conceived Son of God. Jesus Christ is the fully human “Son of God” and not “God the Son.” For clarity’s sake, it's helpful to understand what the Trinity is. The orthodox doctrine of the Trinity is that the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, and the three of them are co-equal, co-eternal, and share the same essence and together those three individual “Persons” are one triune God. The doctrine of the Trinity that Jesus is both 100% God and 100% man and that both the divine nature and his human nature live together in his flesh body may be widely believed, but is never stated in the Bible.
 

Peterlag

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Now you are simply lying through your teeth. It is one thing to say "I do not believe anything in the Bible". It is quite another thing to say "The Bible does not declare that Jesus is God" since that is an OUTRIGHT LIE.

Something that is openly admitted by theologians that is not known by many Christians is that the doctrine of the Trinity is not stated in the Bible, but is actually “built” by piecing together statements that are said to support it. Since most Christians believe the Trinity is a mystery and not to be understood is a huge reason why doctrinal discussions about it are often avoided or brushed aside and ignored. Worse, the teaching that the Trinity is a “mystery” has been used as a club to beat down doubters and dissenters, and those people are often branded as “heretics” and their role in Christianity minimized.

The word “Trinity” is not in the Bible, and that is supporting evidence that the doctrine is unbiblical, which may be why Trinitarians differ, sometimes greatly in their definitions of the Trinity. The Eastern Orthodox Church differs from the Western Church on the relation of the Holy Spirit to the Father and the Son. Trinitarians who hold to the “classic” definition of the Trinity say Jesus was 100% God and 100% man while on the earth believe differently from Kenotic Trinitarians who believe Jesus set aside his godhood while he was a man on the earth. Oneness Pentecostals say the classic formula of the Trinity is completely wrong, and yet all these claim that Christ is God and that the Bible supports their position.
 

Peterlag

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You do realize Jesus was 100% man and 100% God, right?

"The Lord is my shepherd".
Jesus is the "Good Shepherd".
John 11:16 KJV says there's only ONE Shepherd.

"The Lord is my Rock".
"That Rock was Christ."
Psalms 62: 6 KJV says "Thou ONLY art the Rock".

"The Lord is my Judge."
"We must all stand before the Judgment seat of Christ".
John 8:50 says "there is ONE that Judgeth."

Isaiah says the Lord is "the first and the last."
Revelation says Jesus is "the first and the last".
Isaiah says "beside Me (the first and the last) there is no God".

I could go on and on proving Jesus is God Almighty in the highest sense of the word, but it isn't necessary. You think you've cornered some little "truth" - ambiguous at best - disproving the divinity of Jesus, but lay that aside and read the rest of Scripture and you'll see what is plainly taught renders your argument moot.

Regarding that statement at the top: I heard a wise preacher once say if you try to explain it you'll lose your mind, but if you refuse to believe it you'll lose your soul: "Unless ye believe that I AM, ye shall die in your sins." Entire churches refuse to believe, but think they'll die in safety, because they don't know their NWT Bible is based on the corrupt Critical Text Greek NT.

"But unto the Son He saith, Thy throne, O GOD, is forever and ever." - Hebrews 1:8 KJV
You do realize Jesus was 100% man and 100% God, right?

"The Lord is my shepherd".
Jesus is the "Good Shepherd".
John 11:16 KJV says there's only ONE Shepherd.

"The Lord is my Rock".
"That Rock was Christ."
Psalms 62: 6 KJV says "Thou ONLY art the Rock".

"The Lord is my Judge."
"We must all stand before the Judgment seat of Christ".
John 8:50 says "there is ONE that Judgeth."

Isaiah says the Lord is "the first and the last."
Revelation says Jesus is "the first and the last".
Isaiah says "beside Me (the first and the last) there is no God".

I could go on and on proving Jesus is God Almighty in the highest sense of the word, but it isn't necessary. You think you've cornered some little "truth" - ambiguous at best - disproving the divinity of Jesus, but lay that aside and read the rest of Scripture and you'll see what is plainly taught renders your argument moot.

Regarding that statement at the top: I heard a wise preacher once say if you try to explain it you'll lose your mind, but if you refuse to believe it you'll lose your soul: "Unless ye believe that I AM, ye shall die in your sins." Entire churches refuse to believe, but think they'll die in safety, because they don't know their NWT Bible is based on the corrupt Critical Text Greek NT.

"But unto the Son He saith, Thy throne, O GOD, is forever and ever." - Hebrews 1:8 KJV

The Bible teaches there is one God, the Father, and one Messiah and Lord, Jesus Christ, who is the divinely conceived Son of God. Jesus Christ is the fully human “Son of God” and not “God the Son.” For clarity’s sake, it's helpful to understand what the Trinity is. The orthodox doctrine of the Trinity is that the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, and the three of them are co-equal, co-eternal, and share the same essence and together those three individual “Persons” are one triune God. The doctrine of the Trinity that Jesus is both 100% God and 100% man and that both the divine nature and his human nature live together in his flesh body may be widely believed, but is never stated in the Bible.

Something that is openly admitted by theologians that is not known by many Christians is that the doctrine of the Trinity is not stated in the Bible, but is actually “built” by piecing together statements that are said to support it. Since most Christians believe the Trinity is a mystery and not to be understood is a huge reason why doctrinal discussions about it are often avoided or brushed aside and ignored. Worse, the teaching that the Trinity is a “mystery” has been used as a club to beat down doubters and dissenters, and those people are often branded as “heretics” and their role in Christianity minimized.

The word “Trinity” is not in the Bible, and that is supporting evidence that the doctrine is unbiblical, which may be why Trinitarians differ, sometimes greatly in their definitions of the Trinity. The Eastern Orthodox Church differs from the Western Church on the relation of the Holy Spirit to the Father and the Son. Trinitarians who hold to the “classic” definition of the Trinity say Jesus was 100% God and 100% man while on the earth believe differently from Kenotic Trinitarians who believe Jesus set aside his godhood while he was a man on the earth. Oneness Pentecostals say the classic formula of the Trinity is completely wrong, and yet all these claim that Christ is God and that the Bible supports their position.
 

Phoneman777

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The Bible teaches there is one God, the Father, and one Messiah and Lord, Jesus Christ, who is the divinely conceived Son of God. Jesus Christ is the fully human “Son of God” and not “God the Son.” For clarity’s sake, it's helpful to understand what the Trinity is. The orthodox doctrine of the Trinity is that the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, and the three of them are co-equal, co-eternal, and share the same essence and together those three individual “Persons” are one triune God. The doctrine of the Trinity that Jesus is both 100% God and 100% man and that both the divine nature and his human nature live together in his flesh body may be widely believed, but is never stated in the Bible.

Something that is openly admitted by theologians that is not known by many Christians is that the doctrine of the Trinity is not stated in the Bible, but is actually “built” by piecing together statements that are said to support it. Since most Christians believe the Trinity is a mystery and not to be understood is a huge reason why doctrinal discussions about it are often avoided or brushed aside and ignored. Worse, the teaching that the Trinity is a “mystery” has been used as a club to beat down doubters and dissenters, and those people are often branded as “heretics” and their role in Christianity minimized.

The word “Trinity” is not in the Bible, and that is supporting evidence that the doctrine is unbiblical, which may be why Trinitarians differ, sometimes greatly in their definitions of the Trinity. The Eastern Orthodox Church differs from the Western Church on the relation of the Holy Spirit to the Father and the Son. Trinitarians who hold to the “classic” definition of the Trinity say Jesus was 100% God and 100% man while on the earth believe differently from Kenotic Trinitarians who believe Jesus set aside his godhood while he was a man on the earth. Oneness Pentecostals say the classic formula of the Trinity is completely wrong, and yet all these claim that Christ is God and that the Bible supports their position.
So, when the Father told the Son, "Thy throne, O God is forever and ever", the Father was mistaken?

When Isaiah called Jesus "the everlasting Father", Isaiah was mistaken?

When Jesus made Himself equal with the Father, saying "Before Abraham was, I AM?" He was mistaken?

When Thoman said to Jesus, "My Lord and my God", Thomas was mistaken?

When Jesus said, "If ye believe not that I AM ye shall die in your sins" (the same "I AM" with Moses at the bush), He was mistaken?

Remember all those texts I showed you where things are applied to both God and Jesus and then we're told there's only One? For instance, the Lord is the Shepherd, Jesus is the Good Shepherd, but John 10:16 says there's only ONE SHEPHERD? I see you failed to explain all those texts away. You're not doing a very good job of convincing me to abandon my belief that Jesus is God in the highest sense of the word ;)
 
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Peterlag

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So, when the Father told the Son, "Thy throne, O God is forever and ever", the Father was mistaken?

When Isaiah called Jesus "the everlasting Father", Isaiah was mistaken?

When Jesus made Himself equal with the Father, saying "Before Abraham was, I AM?" He was mistaken?

When Thoman said to Jesus, "My Lord and my God", Thomas was mistaken?

When Jesus said, "If ye believe not that I AM ye shall die in your sins" (the same "I AM" with Moses at the bush), He was mistaken?

Remember all those texts I showed you where things are applied to both God and Jesus and then we're told there's only One? For instance, the Lord is the Shepherd, Jesus is the Good Shepherd, but John 10:16 says there's only ONE SHEPHERD? I see you failed to explain all those texts away. You're not doing a very good job of convincing me to abandon my belief that Jesus is God in the highest sense of the word ;)

What is mistaken is how you look at Scripture. Let's just do one verse at a time. You get to pick which one you want me to answer first.
 

Kermos

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Where are you on this...
The Bible teaches there is one God, the Father, and one Messiah and Lord, Jesus Christ, who is the divinely conceived Son of God. Jesus Christ is the fully human “Son of God” and not “God the Son.” For clarity’s sake, it's helpful to understand what the Trinity is. The orthodox doctrine of the Trinity is that the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, and the three of them are co-equal, co-eternal, and share the same essence and together those three individual “Persons” are one triune God. The doctrine of the Trinity that Jesus is both 100% God and 100% man and that both the divine nature and his human nature live together in his flesh body may be widely believed, but is never stated in the Bible.

You ignore Apostolic testimony (as the Bible reveals) that Jesus is God, and I believe Jesus is God, and here is Apostolic testimony that Jesus is God:

The Apostle Paul calls Jesus "the great God" with "looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of the great God and Savior of us, Christ Jesus" (Titus 2:13).

The Apostle Peter calls Jesus "the God" with "Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours by the righteousness of the God of us and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1).

The Apostle Thomas calls Jesus "my God" wirh "My Lord and my God" (John 20:28).

The Apostle Matthew attests that Jesus is "God with us" Immanuel (Matthew 1:23) thus Jesus is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us the children of God (Revelation 1:8).

The Apostle John calls Jesus "the Word" and "God" with "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).

The Apostle Jesus (Hebrews 3:1) calls Jesus the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) by saying "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) and "I am with you always, even to the end of the age" (Matthew 28:20) thus declaring Himself eternal, and the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) is exclusively eternal; therefore, Jesus declares Himself the One True God, YHWH!

NO SCRIPTURE STATES THAT JESUS WAS CREATED.

Jesus is YHWH God according to consistent Apostolic testimony.
 
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Phoneman777

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What is mistaken is how you look at Scripture. Let's just do one verse at a time. You get to pick which one you want me to answer first.
I get it. I prefer to examine one verse at at time.

Jesus said, "Before Abraham was, I was", right?

NO!!!

He said, "Before Abraham was, I AM."

And then they picked up stones to stone Him, right? Why? Because they understood fully what seems to be lost on you, friend: that He was saying He was the same God Who was there with Moses, the I AM THAT I AM. That's why they sought to kill Him.
 
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Peterlag

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You ignore Apostolic testimony (as the Bible reveals) that Jesus is God, and I believe Jesus is God, and here is Apostolic testimony that Jesus is God:

The Apostle Paul calls Jesus "the great God" with "looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of the great God and Savior of us, Christ Jesus" (Titus 2:13).

The Apostle Peter calls Jesus "the God" with "Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours by the righteousness of the God of us and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1).

The Apostle Thomas calls Jesus "my God" wirh "My Lord and my God" (John 20:28).

The Apostle Matthew attests that Jesus is "God with us" Immanuel (Matthew 1:23) thus Jesus is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us the children of God (Revelation 1:8).

The Apostle John calls Jesus "the Word" and "God" with "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).

The Apostle Jesus (Hebrews 3:1) calls Jesus the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) by saying "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) and "I am with you always, even to the end of the age" (Matthew 28:20) thus declaring Himself eternal, and the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) is exclusively eternal; therefore, Jesus declares Himself the One True God, YHWH!

NO SCRIPTURE STATES THAT JESUS WAS CREATED.

Jesus is YHWH God according to consistent Apostolic testimony.

Okay I can respond to all your verses. Lets start with the first one which (Titus 2:13) is that the Apostle Paul did not call Jesus "the great God". My Bible says "the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ."