Homosexuality: Wrong or Right?

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GISMYS_7

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Romans 1:18–32​

God’s Wrath on Unrighteousness
18 For kthe wrath of God lis revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who by their unrighteousness suppress the truth. 19 For what can be mknown about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them. 20 For his invisible attributes, namely, his eternal power and divine nature, nhave been clearly perceived, ever since the creation of the world,7 in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse. 21 For although they knew God, they did not honor him as God or give thanks to him, but they obecame futile in their thinking, and their foolish hearts were darkened. 22 pClaiming to be wise, they became fools, 23 and qexchanged the glory of rthe immortal God for images resembling mortal man and birds and animals and creeping things.
24 Therefore sGod gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, to tthe dishonoring of their bodies among themselves, 25 because they exchanged the truth about God for ua lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, vwho is blessed forever! Amen.
26 For this reason wGod gave them up to xdishonorable passions. For their women exchanged natural relations for those that are contrary to nature; 27 and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, ymen committing shameless acts with men and receiving in themselves the due penalty for their error.
28 And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, zGod gave them up to aa debased mind to do bwhat ought not to be done. 29 They were filled with all manner of unrighteousness, evil, covetousness, malice. They are full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, maliciousness. They are gossips, 30 slanderers, haters of God, insolent, haughty, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31 foolish, faithless, heartless, ruthless. 32 Though they know cGod’s righteous decree that those who practice such things ddeserve to die, they not only do them but egive approval to those who practice them.
 

Sheila3

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Your post is misleading because if anyone posts scripture to refute what you say about homosexuality they will be banned. Post any scripture to refute your side, instead of explaining why the interpretation of the particular scriptures is incorrect, they merely ban the poster. The gay haters cannot explain away the opposing scriptures, or give an honest exegesis of the supposedly anti-gay scripture. Therefore any opposition to you is impossible because it will become labeled as promoting homosexuality.
I surely would like to know what scripture support homosexuality.
 

The Learner

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Your post is misleading because if anyone posts scripture to refute what you say about homosexuality they will be banned. Post any scripture to refute your side, instead of explaining why the interpretation of the particular scriptures is incorrect, they merely ban the poster. The gay haters cannot explain away the opposing scriptures, or give an honest exegesis of the supposedly anti-gay scripture. Therefore any opposition to you is impossible because it will become labeled as promoting homosexuality.
You claims has been refuted:
 

The Learner

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I surely would like to know what scripture support homosexuality.
You claims has been refuted:
 

Keiw

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I will be advocating for the side that homosexuality is inherently wrong, and the promotion of such actions and thoughts are evil. Similar or contrasting views are welcome and gladly accepted. Let us be in constant search for the truth during our discussion.
Yes it is against Gods will, thus govts that support such things are standing in opposition to Jesus, thus those that vote for such politicians are casting their vote in opposition to Jesus. One cannot serve 2 masters.
 
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amigo de christo

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The Bible is quite clear it's wrong before the eyes of God..... Now man can do what he chooses as long as he is on the face of the Earth - the time will come when that will change.
And another thing I feel is quite clear as it was in the days of Lot so shall it be in the coming of the Son of Man. Now in this country and maybe seven or eight others, same sex marriages are approved and are occurring. LBGTQ lifestyles are accepted and growing. In Sodom and Gomorrah they had no shame or no fear.
and what happened to even the jews when they had become as Sodom in the eyes of all mighty GOD .
Well lets see what GOD told them ,
and lets see what it is like to become AS sodom .
YE have become as SODOM unto me , you no longer even hide your sins , You celebrate , honor them IN THE STREETS .
And yet folks keep trying to tell me that we are not in days like unto sodom .
But i challenge each and all to SEE exactly what it is getting celebrated and honored , no longer fringe on hidden .
GO to and behold not only the lands and nations
but go to the doorway of some churches and behold what they have within . Rainbows , diverstiy etc .
Then remember WHAT GOD did to even HIS OWN who cliamed to know him and yet DID this . JUDGED they were
under destruction and wrath they went . How much worse a punishemnt
for those who TROD JESUS CHRIST under foot , tells the world there is no need to have to beleive on HIM
and that all religoins are finding their own way to HIM
and , and also makes him into the Ministir o SIN . THIS IS NOT looking good at all .
So now allow me some parting words .
You ever heard the phrase the devil wears prada ....
Well my dear friend , he can and so can his ministirs wear more than just prada , they can wear them some wool too .
And the church better be on gaurd against them . For they are many and come in the name
of what they , and the world considers Love . ONLY IT AINT THE LOVE O GOD .
 

Arthur81

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I surely would like to know what scripture support homosexuality.
If I showed you in the Hebrew of the OT where a male's love for his male friend included sexual feelings, you would merely deny it like most bigots do. I'm speaking of individuals who are married with children.
 

Arthur81

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You claims has been refuted:
If all you can do is post links to web sites making your case, apparently you cannot express your own thoughts based on study of the Holy Bible.
 
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Arthur81

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I surely would like to know what scripture support homosexuality.
One verse alone answers your question or statement.

The love of Jonathan and David in the OT has been praised and admired for centuries. It is this one verse alone that I have not ever seen explained away or refuted -

"I am distressed for you, my brother Jonathan; greatly beloved were you to me; your love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women." (2 Sam. 1:26 NRSVue)

The church as always claimed that love was depicting the love of a wife for her husband. But, the word is plural, "women". The words "wife", "mother", "wives" and "mothers" were used in the Bible translations* many times prior to the writing of 2 Sam. 1:26; so if the verse spoke of love of wife or mother, it would clearly state it so, but it does not. In looking at the word "women" in a sexual context, the following is found in 1 Samuel -

"Now Eli was very old. He heard all that his sons were doing to all Israel and how they lay with the women who served at the entrance to the tent of meeting." (1 Sam. 2:22 NRSVue)

"The priest answered David, 'I have no ordinary bread at hand, only holy bread—provided that the young men have kept themselves from women. David answered the priest, 'Indeed, women have been kept from us as always when I go on an expedition; the vessels of the young men are holy even when it is a common journey; how much more today will their vessels be holy?'” (1 Sam 21:4-5 NRSVue)

That shows clearly what is meant by "love of women" in 1 Sam. 1:26! The meaning is so clear, that Jerome in his Latin Vulgate translation even added a fraudulent sentence to the verse in order to deflect the sure meaning of the authentic wording. Jerome added the sentence I am emphasizing in bold, as it is translated in the Douay -

"I grieve for thee, my brother Jonathan: exceeding beautiful, and amiable to me above the love of women. As the mother loveth her only son, so did I love thee." (2Sam 1:26 DRC)

* It is true that the Hebrew word as shown in the Strong's Dictionary "'ishshah (ish-shaw') n-f" can also be translated "female and "adulteress", but as noted above, no standard translation uses any other word in 2 Sam. 1:26, than "women".

The replies to this reply I've written, MUST explain this verse in its context;, don't sail around scattering arguments based on passages found from Genesis to Revelation. A single verse alone must be properly understood before it is placed in some type of "proof texting" arrangement.

There are two other observations in 1 Samuel that agree with 2 Sam. 1:26; that the love of Jonathan and David also had a sexual dimension to it, as is not uncommon among close male friendships. I am NOT saying that David or Jonathan were what people today call "gay", for both were married with offspring.
 
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Adrift

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One verse alone answers your question or statement.

The love of Jonathan and David in the OT has been praised and admired for centuries. It is this one verse alone that I have not ever seen explained away or refuted -

"I am distressed for you, my brother Jonathan; greatly beloved were you to me; your love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women." (2 Sam. 1:26 NRSVue)

The church as always claimed that love was depicting the love of a wife for her husband. But, the word is plural, "women". The words "wife", "mother", "wives" and "mothers" were used in the Bible translations* many times prior to the writing of 2 Sam. 1:26; so if the verse spoke of love of wife or mother, it would clearly state it so, but it does not. In looking at the word "women" in a sexual context, the following is found in 1 Samuel -

"Now Eli was very old. He heard all that his sons were doing to all Israel and how they lay with the women who served at the entrance to the tent of meeting." (1 Sam. 2:22 NRSVue)

"The priest answered David, 'I have no ordinary bread at hand, only holy bread—provided that the young men have kept themselves from women. David answered the priest, 'Indeed, women have been kept from us as always when I go on an expedition; the vessels of the young men are holy even when it is a common journey; how much more today will their vessels be holy?'” (1 Sam 21:4-5 NRSVue)

That shows clearly what is meant by "love of women" in 1 Sam. 1:26! The meaning is so clear, that Jerome in his Latin Vulgate translation even added a fraudulent sentence to the verse in order to deflect the sure meaning of the authentic wording. Jerome added the sentence I am emphasizing in bold, as it is translated in the Douay -

"I grieve for thee, my brother Jonathan: exceeding beautiful, and amiable to me above the love of women. As the mother loveth her only son, so did I love thee." (2Sam 1:26 DRC)

* It is true that the Hebrew word as shown in the Strong's Dictionary "'ishshah (ish-shaw') n-f" can also be translated "female and "adulteress", but as noted above, no standard translation uses any other word in 2 Sam. 1:26, than "women".

The replies to this reply I've written, MUST explain this verse in its context;, don't sail around scattering arguments based on passages found from Genesis to Revelation. A single verse alone must be properly understood before it is placed in some type of "proof texting" arrangement.

There are two other observations in 1 Samuel that agree with 2 Sam. 1:26; that the love of Jonathan and David also had a sexual dimension to it, as is not uncommon among close male friendships. I am NOT saying that David or Jonathan were what people today call "gay", for both were married with offspring.
Talk about a long, inglorious stretch! The bottom line is that if a male has sexual feelings for another male, then he is either mentally ill or evil. You can't add to or change the bible's clarity on this issue. You should not attempt to fabricate support for evil. Your story wouldn't have to be so long if it contained any truths. You could simply quote supporting Scripture, but there is none.
 
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Arthur81

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Talk about a long, inglorious stretch! The bottom line is that if a male has sexual feelings for another male, then he is either mentally ill or evil. You can't add to or change the bible's clarity on this issue. You should not attempt to fabricate support for evil. Your story wouldn't have to be so long if it contained any truths. You could simply quote supporting Scripture, but there is none.
Your reply is typical of too many people claiming to know the Bible. I see the absence of any exposition of the verse in question, 2 Sam. 1:26. You're making a baseless editorial style response that does not effect Bible believers. I couldn't care less what you think is "mentally ill or evil"! I want to know what God's word says with sound exegesis and interpretation.
 

Adrift

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Your reply is typical of too many people claiming to know the Bible. I see the absence of any exposition of the verse in question, 2 Sam. 1:26. You're making a baseless editorial style response that does not effect Bible believers. I couldn't care less what you think is "mentally ill or evil"! I want to know what God's word says with sound exegesis and interpretation.
If you are serious about wanting to know what God says, you'll quit twisting 2 Sam. 1:26 into something that you want it to mean. Try:
Romans 1:26-27, 1 Corinthians 6:9, and 1 Tim. 1:10
These are clear words. Talk about baseless! You can read whatever perverse thoughts that you want into anything. You interpret as though you think your infallible. 2 Sam 1:26 can mean many more things other than your unbiblical, sick twist. Your story is weak, disgusting and unbiblical. God bless you.
 
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The Learner

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informational only: not making an arguement.

"
Scholar Robert Gagnon writes in response:

I know of no serious biblical scholar, even pro-homosex biblical scholar, who argues that Paul had in mind only or primarily temple prostitution—not Nissinen, not Brooten, not Fredrickson, not Schoedel, not Bird, not Martin, etc. There are many reasons why this view has not found a welcome in serious biblical scholarship… Paul's views on homosexual behavior were profoundly influenced by the alleged existence of "seven thousand prostitutes, male and female" at the temple of Aphrodite in Corinth in Paul's day. As it happens, the only ancient account that refers to cult prostitutes at the temple of Aphrodite in Corinth is a brief mention by Strabo in Geography 8.6.20c
And the temple of Aphrodite was so rich that it owned more than a thousand temple-slaves, prostitutes, whom both men and women had dedicated to the goddess. And therefore it was on account of these women that the city was crowded with people and grew rich. (Text and commentary in: Jerome Murphy-O'Connor, St. Paul's Corinth: Texts and Archaeology [GNS 6; Wilmington: M. Glazier, 1983], 55-57)
Any critical New Testament scholar knows that Strabo's comments (1) applied only to Greek Corinth in existence several centuries before the time of Paul, not the Roman Corinth of Paul's day; (2) referred to "more than a thousand prostitutes," not seven thousand; and (3) mentioned only female (heterosexual) prostitutes, not male (homosexual) prostitutes. Scholars agree that there was no massive business of female cult prostitutes—to say nothing of male homosexual cult prostitutes—operating out of the temple of Aphrodite in Paul's day; and that there may not have been such a business even in earlier times (i.e., Strabo was confused). This is not particularly new information, which makes it all the more surprising that [pro-homosexuality scholar Jack] Rogers was taken in, apparently, by an ill-informed tour guide. For example, Hans Conzelmann made the following remarks in his major commentary on 1 Corinthians written some thirty years ago:
Incidentally, the often-peddled statement that Corinth was a seat of sacred prostitution (in the service of Aphrodite) is a fable.

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskBibleScholars/comments/hle6jl
 

Arthur81

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If you are serious about wanting to know what God says, you'll quit twisting 2 Sam. 1:26 into something that you want it to mean. Try:
Romans 1:26-27, 1 Corinthians 6:9, and 1 Tim. 1:10
These are clear words. Talk about baseless! You can read whatever perverse thoughts that you want into anything. You interpret as though you think your infallible. 2 Sam 1:26 can mean many more things other than your unbiblical, sick twist. Your story is weak, disgusting and unbiblical. God bless you.
You are using the shallow and misleading approach I've read called "spoof texting", because you don't understand any of the verses you give. You are doing what most gay-hating Bible thumpers do, sidestep the examination of each single verse in order to arrive at your bigoted conclusion. Your superficial approach to the word of God is the same used by the Jehovah's Witnesses as they deny the Deity of Jesus the Christ. You apparently cannot refute my remarks on 2 Sam. 1:26 so you merely bring up other passages.

I'll add one personal guide I use for myself in the study of God's word. I believe in holding myself to the 2 or 3 witnesses requirement:

"But if you are not listened to, take one or two others along with you, so that every word may be confirmed by the evidence of two or three witnesses." (Matt 18:16 NRSV)

When I read where someone seriously responds to my conclusion on 2 Sam. 1:26, I'll add 2 other 'witnesses' to satisfy myself on the truth conveyed on this matter. To support my belief on a topic, I use at least 2 or 3 verses or passages as solid proof texts as I give a serious examination of each verse. I have the 3 scripture witnesses to my belief that the love of Jonathan and David included some element of sexual desire whether acted upon or not. If someone can give some scholarly rebuttal to my claim on 2 Sam. 1:26, I'll give the other two.

I readily confess, it is by being challenged that I learn the scriptures in more depth. "Iron sharpens iron, and one person sharpens the wits of another." (Prov 27:17 NRSV) I learn something everyday so I've surely not arrived!
 

RLT63

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Your reply is typical of too many people claiming to know the Bible. I see the absence of any exposition of the verse in question, 2 Sam. 1:26. You're making a baseless editorial style response that does not effect Bible believers. I couldn't care less what you think is "mentally ill or evil"! I want to know what God's word says with sound exegesis and interpretation.
No. You want the Bible to endorse your views on homosexuality. It doesn’t Even if you were correct about your interpretation it would be no more an approval of homosexuality than David’s affair with Bathsheba is an endorsement of adultery, it isn’t.
 
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RLT63

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You are using the shallow and misleading approach I've read called "spoof texting", because you don't understand any of the verses you give. You are doing what most gay-hating Bible thumpers do, sidestep the examination of each single verse in order to arrive at your bigoted conclusion. Your superficial approach to the word of God is the same used by the Jehovah's Witnesses as they deny the Deity of Jesus the Christ. You apparently cannot refute my remarks on 2 Sam. 1:26 so you merely bring up other passages.

I'll add one personal guide I use for myself in the study of God's word. I believe in holding myself to the 2 or 3 witnesses requirement:

"But if you are not listened to, take one or two others along with you, so that every word may be confirmed by the evidence of two or three witnesses." (Matt 18:16 NRSV)

When I read where someone seriously responds to my conclusion on 2 Sam. 1:26, I'll add 2 other 'witnesses' to satisfy myself on the truth conveyed on this matter. To support my belief on a topic, I use at least 2 or 3 verses or passages as solid proof texts as I give a serious examination of each verse. I have the 3 scripture witnesses to my belief that the love of Jonathan and David included some element of sexual desire whether acted upon or not. If someone can give some scholarly rebuttal to my claim on 2 Sam. 1:26, I'll give the other two.

I readily confess, it is by being challenged that I learn the scriptures in more depth. "Iron sharpens iron, and one person sharpens the wits of another." (Prov 27:17 NRSV) I learn something everyday so I've surely not arrived!
While your study of scripture is commendable even if you are correct just because David did something doesn’t mean that God approved.
 

RLT63

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One verse alone answers your question or statement.

The love of Jonathan and David in the OT has been praised and admired for centuries. It is this one verse alone that I have not ever seen explained away or refuted -

"I am distressed for you, my brother Jonathan; greatly beloved were you to me; your love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women." (2 Sam. 1:26 NRSVue)

The church as always claimed that love was depicting the love of a wife for her husband. But, the word is plural, "women". The words "wife", "mother", "wives" and "mothers" were used in the Bible translations* many times prior to the writing of 2 Sam. 1:26; so if the verse spoke of love of wife or mother, it would clearly state it so, but it does not. In looking at the word "women" in a sexual context, the following is found in 1 Samuel -

"Now Eli was very old. He heard all that his sons were doing to all Israel and how they lay with the women who served at the entrance to the tent of meeting." (1 Sam. 2:22 NRSVue)

"The priest answered David, 'I have no ordinary bread at hand, only holy bread—provided that the young men have kept themselves from women. David answered the priest, 'Indeed, women have been kept from us as always when I go on an expedition; the vessels of the young men are holy even when it is a common journey; how much more today will their vessels be holy?'” (1 Sam 21:4-5 NRSVue)

That shows clearly what is meant by "love of women" in 1 Sam. 1:26! The meaning is so clear, that Jerome in his Latin Vulgate translation even added a fraudulent sentence to the verse in order to deflect the sure meaning of the authentic wording. Jerome added the sentence I am emphasizing in bold, as it is translated in the Douay -

"I grieve for thee, my brother Jonathan: exceeding beautiful, and amiable to me above the love of women. As the mother loveth her only son, so did I love thee." (2Sam 1:26 DRC)

* It is true that the Hebrew word as shown in the Strong's Dictionary "'ishshah (ish-shaw') n-f" can also be translated "female and "adulteress", but as noted above, no standard translation uses any other word in 2 Sam. 1:26, than "women".

The replies to this reply I've written, MUST explain this verse in its context;, don't sail around scattering arguments based on passages found from Genesis to Revelation. A single verse alone must be properly understood before it is placed in some type of "proof texting" arrangement.

There are two other observations in 1 Samuel that agree with 2 Sam. 1:26; that the love of Jonathan and David also had a sexual dimension to it, as is not uncommon among close male friendships. I am NOT saying that David or Jonathan were what people today call "gay", for both were married with offspring.
Even if you are correct this is not an endorsement of homosexuality. Just because David did something doesn’t mean that God approved.