The name he inherited was this...
21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins.
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21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins.
They all agreed with Thomas that Jesus was God after they saw him resurrected from the dead. They never attempted to debunk Thomas, nor did Jesus debunk him, but simply agreed.
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101G
Well-Known Member
101G said: ↑
now Randy if what you said is true, then is it the same person in John 1:3 the same person in Isaiah 44:24 who "MADE ALL THINGS", yes or no?
YOU SAID, "John was talking about Jesus who as God's Word co-created the universe. It was through the Word that God made the universe. That was the tool through which God operated in the creation of the universe".
see Randy this is what I'm talking about, notice what you said, "John was talking about Jesus who as God's Word co-created the universe." that's the ERROR you made, Jesus did not co-create anything with anyone. LISTEN to the scripture, Isaiah 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;"
did you read that Randy? he was "ALONE" and "BY HIMSELF". do you know what "ALONE" means? listen, having no one else present. meaning there was no other person or anything there. and "by myself", means ALONE, just googlr those words "alone", and " bu oneseld". so there was no co-creator, and he didn't go through anyone elese because there was no one else to go through.
this is the problem, it not any trinity, nor is there any Modalism, what people are overlooking is just what the bible say, John 1:1 the Word was "WITH" God and is GOD, meaning it's the same one PERTSON. but the question is HOW IS THE LORD JESUS THE SAME ONE PERSON BUT YET A PLURALITY AS "FATHER" & "SON". understanding "with" will reveal how JESUS "one" person is a plurality of his ownself in flesh and be a man/in likeness and God, (Spirit) at the same time. that's what you are lacking. that knowledge is in the bible, but no one what to see it, it's right in our faces. the bible clearly, and plainly said, Romans 1:19 "Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them."Romans 1:20 "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"
see Randy we all have no excuse. the scripture states, "that which may be known of God is manifest in them". them, them, them, meaning mankind. so what is mankind? answer ... "ANOTHER" of one's ownself. how do I know this? Roman just said, "being understood by the things that are made". God, Jesus the Holy Spirit MADE ALL THING, including MAN, male and female... BINGO there is our answer. listen carefully, Genesis 1:26 "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth."
WHAT IS THE IMAGE OF GOD? ANSWER "ANOTHER" of oneself. scripture, the very next verse, Genesis 1:27 "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." did you see that word "them", now back to romans 1:19 "Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them" there is the "them". the question, "them" who? the male and the female. are we speaking gender.. NO, but numerical difference. hold this in your mind. listen to what MAN means as male and female.
H120 אָדָם 'adam (aw-dawm') n-m.
ruddy i.e. a human being (an individual or the species, mankind, etc.).
[from H119]
KJV: X another, + hypocrite, + common sort, X low, man (mean, of low degree), person.
Root(s): H119
now Randy, see the (mankind) there. this is the "THEM" (mankind), that the apostle Paul spoke of in Romans 1:19. why because the Hebrew term here for man, as (MANKIND) is H120, for the single person it's H119. NOW HERE COMES the Revelation in. in H120 which identifies MAN/ADAM as MANDKIND, it is translated also as "ANOTHER", see the definition directly above. and another is what the Greek identify as G243 allos. now listen to the definition. Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort. remember I told you to keep, "numerical difference" in your head. well the numerical difference of MAN/ADAM as H120 אָדָם according to Genesis 1:26 and 27 is ANOTHER of one's ownself. see or understand, the woman came from the man, now watch this......
John 13:3 "Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he was come from God, and went to God;"
John 15:26 "But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:"
John 16:28 "I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father."
a many of Christians think "come or came is speaking of distance here, no not in context here, come or came is speaking of "source". not in distance from one place to another, no. but your source. just as with ignorant earthly men in using "with" in John 1:1 out of context, because they are ignorant of God Holy Word.
JUST AS THE WOMAN COME FROM THE MAN, the Lord Jesus the Christ "CAME" from the Father. see Adam and Eve are the same, as one, but is a numerical difference. remember what G243 allos states, Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort. the same sort, or the same NATURE, the woman is of the same, NATURE, flesh and bone as the man, the Lord Jesus is the same Spirit who is GOD, as Phil 2:6 clearly points out, "EQUAL ..... "WITH" there is that word again, "WITH"... God, who is Spirit.
see, or by understand John 1:1 and the term "WITH" then one can know why in Genesis 1:26 God said US and OUR, and why in the very next verse say, he and him, meaning ONE PERSON. see by understanding the term "WITH" at John 1:1 and at Phil 2:6 and in Isaiah 41:4 then one can understand the Godhead. also by understanding the term "ONE" at Deuteronomy 6:4 the H259 אֶחָד 'echad, then one can know why, JESUS, who is one person who is both the title holder of "Father", and "Son" at the samne time, remember G243 allos, a numerical difference of one ownself.
this is bible revelation. you don't get this in a standard class room, but only from, and by God, the Lord Jesus the GREAT TEACHER, the Holy Ghost.
see Randy, Diversity, the "sharing" of oneself vs your trinity doctrine of "Separation" of many person of three is your Sabellianism or modalism in REVERSE. understanding the Godhead is "diversity" and it's in the bible, better known as the "OFFSPRING".
what I was taught is in the BIBLE, because it is the truth. we suggest you re-read this post for clarity. we just gave you the Godhead in a nutshell.
PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"
now Randy if what you said is true, then is it the same person in John 1:3 the same person in Isaiah 44:24 who "MADE ALL THINGS", yes or no?
YOU SAID, "John was talking about Jesus who as God's Word co-created the universe. It was through the Word that God made the universe. That was the tool through which God operated in the creation of the universe".
see Randy this is what I'm talking about, notice what you said, "John was talking about Jesus who as God's Word co-created the universe." that's the ERROR you made, Jesus did not co-create anything with anyone. LISTEN to the scripture, Isaiah 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;"
did you read that Randy? he was "ALONE" and "BY HIMSELF". do you know what "ALONE" means? listen, having no one else present. meaning there was no other person or anything there. and "by myself", means ALONE, just googlr those words "alone", and " bu oneseld". so there was no co-creator, and he didn't go through anyone elese because there was no one else to go through.
this is the problem, it not any trinity, nor is there any Modalism, what people are overlooking is just what the bible say, John 1:1 the Word was "WITH" God and is GOD, meaning it's the same one PERTSON. but the question is HOW IS THE LORD JESUS THE SAME ONE PERSON BUT YET A PLURALITY AS "FATHER" & "SON". understanding "with" will reveal how JESUS "one" person is a plurality of his ownself in flesh and be a man/in likeness and God, (Spirit) at the same time. that's what you are lacking. that knowledge is in the bible, but no one what to see it, it's right in our faces. the bible clearly, and plainly said, Romans 1:19 "Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them."Romans 1:20 "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"
see Randy we all have no excuse. the scripture states, "that which may be known of God is manifest in them". them, them, them, meaning mankind. so what is mankind? answer ... "ANOTHER" of one's ownself. how do I know this? Roman just said, "being understood by the things that are made". God, Jesus the Holy Spirit MADE ALL THING, including MAN, male and female... BINGO there is our answer. listen carefully, Genesis 1:26 "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth."
WHAT IS THE IMAGE OF GOD? ANSWER "ANOTHER" of oneself. scripture, the very next verse, Genesis 1:27 "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." did you see that word "them", now back to romans 1:19 "Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them" there is the "them". the question, "them" who? the male and the female. are we speaking gender.. NO, but numerical difference. hold this in your mind. listen to what MAN means as male and female.
H120 אָדָם 'adam (aw-dawm') n-m.
ruddy i.e. a human being (an individual or the species, mankind, etc.).
[from H119]
KJV: X another, + hypocrite, + common sort, X low, man (mean, of low degree), person.
Root(s): H119
now Randy, see the (mankind) there. this is the "THEM" (mankind), that the apostle Paul spoke of in Romans 1:19. why because the Hebrew term here for man, as (MANKIND) is H120, for the single person it's H119. NOW HERE COMES the Revelation in. in H120 which identifies MAN/ADAM as MANDKIND, it is translated also as "ANOTHER", see the definition directly above. and another is what the Greek identify as G243 allos. now listen to the definition. Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort. remember I told you to keep, "numerical difference" in your head. well the numerical difference of MAN/ADAM as H120 אָדָם according to Genesis 1:26 and 27 is ANOTHER of one's ownself. see or understand, the woman came from the man, now watch this......
John 13:3 "Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he was come from God, and went to God;"
John 15:26 "But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:"
John 16:28 "I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father."
a many of Christians think "come or came is speaking of distance here, no not in context here, come or came is speaking of "source". not in distance from one place to another, no. but your source. just as with ignorant earthly men in using "with" in John 1:1 out of context, because they are ignorant of God Holy Word.
JUST AS THE WOMAN COME FROM THE MAN, the Lord Jesus the Christ "CAME" from the Father. see Adam and Eve are the same, as one, but is a numerical difference. remember what G243 allos states, Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort. the same sort, or the same NATURE, the woman is of the same, NATURE, flesh and bone as the man, the Lord Jesus is the same Spirit who is GOD, as Phil 2:6 clearly points out, "EQUAL ..... "WITH" there is that word again, "WITH"... God, who is Spirit.
see, or by understand John 1:1 and the term "WITH" then one can know why in Genesis 1:26 God said US and OUR, and why in the very next verse say, he and him, meaning ONE PERSON. see by understanding the term "WITH" at John 1:1 and at Phil 2:6 and in Isaiah 41:4 then one can understand the Godhead. also by understanding the term "ONE" at Deuteronomy 6:4 the H259 אֶחָד 'echad, then one can know why, JESUS, who is one person who is both the title holder of "Father", and "Son" at the samne time, remember G243 allos, a numerical difference of one ownself.
this is bible revelation. you don't get this in a standard class room, but only from, and by God, the Lord Jesus the GREAT TEACHER, the Holy Ghost.
see Randy, Diversity, the "sharing" of oneself vs your trinity doctrine of "Separation" of many person of three is your Sabellianism or modalism in REVERSE. understanding the Godhead is "diversity" and it's in the bible, better known as the "OFFSPRING".
what I was taught is in the BIBLE, because it is the truth. we suggest you re-read this post for clarity. we just gave you the Godhead in a nutshell.
PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"
In calling Jesus the Son of God, John was in effect calling Jesus the everlasting Father; for the people in his audience would not have been ignorant of what it says in Isaiah 9:6. And back in that day, there was no teaching that changed the wording of that scripture twice in order to make it not say what it actually does say.
Indeed; the topical context of John 20:31 is Isaiah 9:6.
Jesus also made other statements that were grammatically incorrect (i.e. "before Abraham was, I AM").
Jesus is the one Lord of holy scripture (1 Corinthians 8:6, 1 Corinthians 12:3, Ephesians 4:5). And yet, it is written that the Father is the Lord of heaven and earth (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21).
How do you explain that?
For if Jesus is a different Lord from the Father, then there are two Lords; and you have a contradiction in holy scripture.
If Jesus is the same Lord as the Father, then Jesus is the Father.
I'm saddened to see that you ignore the scriptures that tell us that Jehovah God does indeed have a Father (Revelation 1:6 (kjv) and God (Hebrews 1:8-9).
Why then, didn't you reference Colossians 2:9 in such a way that it would be easy to scroll on it with your mouse to see what it says?
BARNEY BRIGHT
Well-Known Member
These texts prove what I been saying all along. People such as you will take scripture out of context, ignore grammar etc.
I would only encourage the reader to be a Berean (Acts of the Apostles 17:10-11) and to read the texts themselves; for they testify clearly to what I am saying.
amigo de christo
Well-Known Member
Without even knowing the greek . I have seen the word and , and it often mean Even .
Yep . You quoate them verses my friend . quoate on .
BARNEY BRIGHT
Well-Known Member
The scriptures explicitly and clearly teach that God sent his Only Begotten Son to the World of Mankind to save the World of Mankind.The scriptures tell us at John 3:16 that God sent his Only Begotten Son to the World of Mankind. We must all exercise faith in the name of the Only Begotten Son of God.
However for a person to gain salvation God requires that he exercise faith in Him and Christ Jesus. A person cannot expect God’s favor when he refuses to exercise faith in the Father as a Savior and in the One whom the Father sent to make salvation possible. It is written: “For ‘anyone that calls upon the name of Jehovah will be saved.’” (Rom. 10:13) This has to be done by faith, not only in Jehovah and his Son, but also in the truthfulness of his Word. Without faith it is impossible to win his good pleasure, for he that approaches God must believe that he is and that he becomes the rewarder of those earnestly seeking him.”Heb. 11:6.
The apostle John repeatedly describes the Lord Jesus Christ as the only-begotten Son of God. (Joh 1:14; 3:16, 18; 1Jo 4:9) This is not in reference to his human birth or to him as just the man Jesus. As the Loʹgos, or Word, “this one was in the beginning with God,” even “before the world was.” (Joh 1:1, 2; 17:5, 24) At that time while in his prehuman state of existence, he is described as the “only-begotten Son” whom his Father sent “into the world.”1Jo 4:9.
The "son that was given" shall be given the name of "The everlasting Father."
That appears to be a mistranslation...
see Acts of the Apostles 4:10-12.
He became the Son when He incarnated. Before that He was the Word...even God (John 1:1 (kjv)).
ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
CharismaticLady
Well-Known Member
No, the son eventually was made the everlasting Father by default, because of the Col 2:9 effect on his spirit body.
The baby did not Father us or Mary, but the Father was inside the baby.
BARNEY BRIGHT
Well-Known Member
According to the first-century physician Luke, a young virgin named Mary was told by an angel: “Look! you will conceive in your womb and give birth to a son, and you are to call his name Jesus.” What did the angelic messenger say about Jesus? “This one will be great and will be called Son of the Most High,” he said. “He [Jesus] will rule as king,” and “there will be no end of his kingdom.”—Luke 1:31-33.
Surely that is what mankind needs—a righteous world ruler to administer earth’s affairs in a loving way! Indeed, long before Jesus’ birth, the Bible foretold: “To us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called . . . Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. Of the increase of his government and peace there will be no end.” Isaiah 9:6, 7
A righteous government and peace, what glorious prospects! But note that this government was foretold to be on the shoulders of a prince, "the Prince of Peace," revealing that the King over all, Almighty God, entrusts such rulership to His Son. So Jesus repeatedly called this government of which he would be Ruler “the kingdom of God.” Luke 9:27, 60, 62.
Early in his ministry Jesus said: “I must declare the good news of the kingdom of God, because for this I was sent forth.” (Luke 4:43) Jesus even taught his followers to pray for God’s Kingdom to come. (Matthew 6:9, 10) The journal Christianity and Crisis says that “the Kingdom was the dominant theme of [Jesus’] teaching,” adding: “No other subject was so much on his mind or so central to his message. It is mentioned over a hundred times in the Gospel narratives.”
Why do you think Jesus had to have a Divine origin? Before the first man, Adam, fathered children, he succumbed to sin. A rebel angel, who came to be called Devil and Satan, succeeded in causing him to disobey God. As a result, Adam lost his relationship as God’s son, as God said he would if he disobeyed. Thus, Adam suffered the consequences. He became imperfect, grew old, and eventually died.—Genesis 2:15-17; 3:17-19; Revelation 12:9.
Describing the effect that Adam’s disobedience had on all of us, his descendants, the Bible explains: “Through one man [Adam] sin entered into the world and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men because they had all sinned.” (Romans 5:12) Sadly, we all inherited sin from our forefather Adam, along with its dire consequences, namely aging and death.—Job 14:4; Romans 3:23.
Release from such consequences could only be realized by having a perfect father, one who had not inherited sin and its dreadful consequences. Consider how that new father, comparable to the perfect Adam, was provided.
BARNEY BRIGHT
Well-Known Member
Romans 10:13 is a quotation from Joel 2:32 where the 4 hebrew letters YHWH which represents the personal name of God were there in that scripture.
CharismaticLady
Well-Known Member
ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
Joel 2:32
32 "And it will come about that whoever calls on the name of the Lord
Will be delivered;
For on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem
There will be those who escape,
As the Lord has said,
Even among the survivors whom the Lord calls.
Here we see Paul quote this OT passage about YHWH and apply it to Jesus who is the one and only Lord according to the N.T.
Romans 10:9-13
9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, "WHOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED." 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him; 13 for "WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED."
So a person must confess Jesus is YHWH(Lord) to be saved. Confess means to agree with so the person confessing Jesus is Lord is in agreement that He is YHWH. Whoever will call upon the name of the Lord ( YHWH) will be saved.
hope this helps !!!
BARNEY BRIGHT
Well-Known Member
Oh no here comes Gods scripture. You want except the fact that scripture tells us that Jesus Father is Almighty God. Jesus is the Prince of Peace this government was foretold to be on the shoulders of
the “Prince of Peace” revealing like I said before that the King over all, Almighty God, entrusts such rulership to His Son. So Jesus repeatedly called this government of which he would be Ruler “the kingdom of God.” Luke 9:27, 60, 62.
BARNEY BRIGHT
Well-Known Member
It wasn't Paul who took the 4 hebrew letters out of this scripture. He didn't use the word Lord in place of the 4 hebrew letters YHWH.
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