Lord Jesus in His Olivet discourse of Matthew 24 pointed directly in warning about the coming of a false-Christ that will appear on earth first, prior to His return.
The Matthew 24:23-26 Scripture is a bit tricky, because the KJV translators didn't follow the Greek perfectly involving the singular tense. They instead made it plural, when the CONTEXT per the Greek is actually about a singular coming antichrist, or false-Christ.
Matt 24:21-26
21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.
The above warning Jesus gave set the time of this. It is for the time of "great tribulation".
Matt 24:23 Then if any man shall say unto you, "Lo, here is Christ, or there"; believe it not.
What is the context of the above warning statement by Lord Jesus? Is He pointing to many Christs plural, or to a singular Christ? He is pointing to a SINGULAR false Christ.
In that time, or the "great tribulation", if someone comes up to you and says that, "Lo, here is Christ, or there", they will be pointing to a singular one they believe is The Christ. That word "Christ" there is christos in the Greek, and is the word for a singular Christ.
No brainer right? It's easy to know Lord Jesus is pointing to a singular false Christ by that statement, right?
Matt 24:24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
What about the above "false Christs" Jesus mentioned? It is the Greek word 'pseudochristoi' per several Greek Interlinears, but Strong's Exhaustive Concordance has "false Christs" as Greek 'pseudochristos'. Greek christoi is plural, but christos is singular.
And thus Dr. James Strong in his Strong's Exhaustive Concordance has pseudochristos defined as...
NT:5580
pseudochristos (psyoo-dokh'-ris-tos); from NT:5571 and NT:5547; a spurious Messiah:
KJV - false Christ.
(Strong's Exhaustive Concordance)
Dr. James Strong defined that Greek pseudochristos to mean "a spurious Messiah".
Does that idea of a singular pseudo-Christ match the context of what Lord Jesus is saying here?? You bet it does!
Matthew 24:25-26
25 Behold, I have told you before.
26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, "Behold, He is in the desert"; go not forth: "behold, He is in the secret chambers"; believe it not.
KJV
Shouldn't the KJV translators have translated that "He is in the desert" as "THEY are in the desert"?, since they translated the previous "false Christs" as plural?
Same with "He is in the secret chambers", shouldn't that have been translated as, "They are in the secret chambers"??
How do we reconcile these Scriptures then?
The KEY:
is to understand that BOTH a singular "antichrist" is prophesied to come, and also "many antichrists" are prophesied, even that the many are already at work (1 John 2:18). In Matthew 24:4-5 Lord Jesus warned about the coming of the "many antichrists", when He said many would come in His name, saying, "I am Christ".
But this pseudo-christos in Matthew 24:23-26 is different, because Lord Jesus was pointing to a specific false one the deceived will be saying is The Christ. And that in conjunction with that single false one working "great signs and wonders" so powerful in deception, that IF... it were possible, would deceive even Christ's very elect.
This means that coming False-Christ is going to appear and work in every way possible how our Lord Jesus would appear, working supernatural signs and wonders and miracles. Revelation 13:11 forward even reveals that false one will rain fire down from heaven to the earth in the sight of men.
Forget... all the old stereotypes of the old false kings of empires per past history that claimed to be God. Those were about flesh men claiming to be God without power to work supernatural signs and wonders. This coming pseudo-Christ apparently will not be flesh human born.
The Matthew 24:23-26 Scripture is a bit tricky, because the KJV translators didn't follow the Greek perfectly involving the singular tense. They instead made it plural, when the CONTEXT per the Greek is actually about a singular coming antichrist, or false-Christ.
Matt 24:21-26
21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.
The above warning Jesus gave set the time of this. It is for the time of "great tribulation".
Matt 24:23 Then if any man shall say unto you, "Lo, here is Christ, or there"; believe it not.
What is the context of the above warning statement by Lord Jesus? Is He pointing to many Christs plural, or to a singular Christ? He is pointing to a SINGULAR false Christ.
In that time, or the "great tribulation", if someone comes up to you and says that, "Lo, here is Christ, or there", they will be pointing to a singular one they believe is The Christ. That word "Christ" there is christos in the Greek, and is the word for a singular Christ.
No brainer right? It's easy to know Lord Jesus is pointing to a singular false Christ by that statement, right?
Matt 24:24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
What about the above "false Christs" Jesus mentioned? It is the Greek word 'pseudochristoi' per several Greek Interlinears, but Strong's Exhaustive Concordance has "false Christs" as Greek 'pseudochristos'. Greek christoi is plural, but christos is singular.
And thus Dr. James Strong in his Strong's Exhaustive Concordance has pseudochristos defined as...
NT:5580
pseudochristos (psyoo-dokh'-ris-tos); from NT:5571 and NT:5547; a spurious Messiah:
KJV - false Christ.
(Strong's Exhaustive Concordance)
Dr. James Strong defined that Greek pseudochristos to mean "a spurious Messiah".
Does that idea of a singular pseudo-Christ match the context of what Lord Jesus is saying here?? You bet it does!
Matthew 24:25-26
25 Behold, I have told you before.
26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, "Behold, He is in the desert"; go not forth: "behold, He is in the secret chambers"; believe it not.
KJV
Shouldn't the KJV translators have translated that "He is in the desert" as "THEY are in the desert"?, since they translated the previous "false Christs" as plural?
Same with "He is in the secret chambers", shouldn't that have been translated as, "They are in the secret chambers"??
How do we reconcile these Scriptures then?
The KEY:
is to understand that BOTH a singular "antichrist" is prophesied to come, and also "many antichrists" are prophesied, even that the many are already at work (1 John 2:18). In Matthew 24:4-5 Lord Jesus warned about the coming of the "many antichrists", when He said many would come in His name, saying, "I am Christ".
But this pseudo-christos in Matthew 24:23-26 is different, because Lord Jesus was pointing to a specific false one the deceived will be saying is The Christ. And that in conjunction with that single false one working "great signs and wonders" so powerful in deception, that IF... it were possible, would deceive even Christ's very elect.
This means that coming False-Christ is going to appear and work in every way possible how our Lord Jesus would appear, working supernatural signs and wonders and miracles. Revelation 13:11 forward even reveals that false one will rain fire down from heaven to the earth in the sight of men.
Forget... all the old stereotypes of the old false kings of empires per past history that claimed to be God. Those were about flesh men claiming to be God without power to work supernatural signs and wonders. This coming pseudo-Christ apparently will not be flesh human born.
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