rejecting Jesus Christ is different from the sin of blasphemy against the Holy Spirit.

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justbyfaith

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I've addressed this over a dozen times already. God is synonymous with LORD, capital. There are many lords, lowercase: Voldemort, Vader, Cornwallis, Jesus, etc.

Trinitarians deliberately want to confuse the 2.

The LORD says to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.”
Psalm 110:1
And I have always addressed your answer by asking you whether you believe Jesus is merely a lord.

You have always failed to answer.

Because the holy scriptures are clear.

1Co 12:3, Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
 

justbyfaith

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Wrangler

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And I have always addressed your answer by asking you whether you believe Jesus is merely a lord.

Yes, is merely a lord. All lords are merely lords over who owe them loyalty. In the case of Voldemort, he is the lord over dark wizards. In the case of Vader, he is the lord over the Sith. In the case of Jesus, he is the lord over those who accept him as their savior.

But no lord is the LORD God.
 

justbyfaith

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Psalms 8:9 would tell you that the LORD is our Lord; and there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5).

Psa 8:9, O LORD our Lord, how excellent is thy name in all the earth!

Compare that to what it says in Psalms 110 and what do you have?

Psa 110:1, [[A Psalm of David.]] The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
 
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justbyfaith

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Yes, is merely a lord. All lords are merely lords over who owe them loyalty. In the case of Voldemort, he is the lord over dark wizards. In the case of Vader, he is the lord over the Sith. In the case of Jesus, he is the lord over those who accept him as their savior.

But no lord is the LORD God.
No; because in 1 Corinthians 8:5, we find that there are many lords; while in 1 Corinthians 8:6 we find that there is one Lord (capital "L") Jesus Christ.
 

Wrangler

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No; because in 1 Corinthians 8:5, we find that there are many lords; while in 1 Corinthians 8:6 we find that there is one Lord (capital "L") Jesus Christ.

I've already explained this. You seem to have no reading comprehension. All the lords I mentioned are specific, and therefore, capital L, Lord Vader, etc. There is only one all capital LORD, which is clearly differentiated in Psalm 110:1.

Since this thread is not to debate the man-is-God thesis, let's return to the topic in the OP, which is further evidence that Jesus is not God.
 

justbyfaith

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justbyfaith

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Psalms 8:9 would tell you that the LORD is our Lord; and there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5).

Psa 8:9, O LORD our Lord, how excellent is thy name in all the earth!

Compare that to what it says in Psalms 110 and what do you have?

Psa 110:1, [[A Psalm of David.]] The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
If this seems to be a contradiction to you then go here:

True Trinity. (post #5).
 

justbyfaith

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Since this thread is not to debate the man-is-God thesis, let's return to the topic in the OP, which is further evidence that Jesus is not God.
Okay, I will interpret this as you conceding the point and that you do not want to argue any further.

Also, what we are debating is not the man-is-God thesis; but the "God-is-become-Man" thesis.

There is a difference.
 
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justbyfaith

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In 1 Corinthians 8:6, there is one Lord Jesus Christ who is not one of many lords.

If He were one of many lords then it would not be said that there is one Lord Jesus Christ; it would be said that Jesus is a lord; even one of many.
 

justbyfaith

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LOL. You lost. Lord ≠ LORD. Jesus said as much regarding it being forgivable to blasphemy him but not forgivable to blasphemy the Holy Spirit of God.

Nope. Apparently you missed one of my posts (rejecting Jesus Christ is different from the sin of blasphemy against the Holy Spirit.).

LORD = Lord. Psalms 8:9, Ephesians 4:5.

The Holy Ghost is the Spirit of Jesus after He was released to the Father at the Cross (LUke 23:46). He has lived a human life and therefore He understands humanity; and it is His job to bring people into the saving knowledge of Jesus Christ. Therefore if He is convicting someone, and they say that conviction is coming from the devil or demons, there is no redemption for them; because they are rejecting the testimony of the Spirit in convicting them so that they will understand that they are a sinner in need of a Saviour. That is a necessary understanding if you are going to receive the Saviour and be saved.
 

justbyfaith

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Nope? Nope. This thread is about the words of Jesus, obliterating the co-equal claim.

Rather than accept this reality, you Appeal to Diversion in introducing any other verse.
So, your decision is to ignore the verse of scripture that I have presented.

I suppose that is one way of dealing with it when you have been defeated logically.
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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Wrangler said:
Well, before I elaborate on my argument, please answer my question: Wasn't Jesus torn apart from the Father at the cross?

Wrangler,
I believe that He was.

But the Bible is silent as to whether or not He was God in His own right, and therefore continued to be God when the Father left Him, or whether He was only God in that He was indwelt by the Father, and therefore when the Father left Him only the human Jesus was left on the Cross.

Personally, I think that He was God in His own right; even in His humanity: that in the hypostatic union God and man was never separated.

Because in order for Jesus to take upon His own shoulders the sins of all of humanity and pay the just penalty for all of those kazillions of sins, He could have only been the infinite God while suffering for the sins of the world.

There are those who believe that His suffering was only on the Cross (i.e. "It is finished") while others believe that He continued to suffer when He went into the heart of the earth for three days and three nights.

If He paid for our sins while only on the Cross, then He would not have had to continue to be God when He went into the grave; He would have paid for the sins of humanity in His infinite Person while suffering and dying on the Cross.

Speculation amounting to blasphemy. To say <<Jesus was torn apart from the Father at the cross>> is blasphemously against Scripture. Jesus WITH HIS LAST BREATH GAVE HIS SOUL INTO THE HANDS OF HIS FATHER RIGHT WITH HIM AT THE CROSS.
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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Because the holy scriptures are clear.

1Co 12:3, Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.

Amen Lord Jesus.
This was how the Jews and Pharisees called Jesus accursed, BY DENYING WHAT THE SCRIPTURES BY THE SPIRIT OF GOD SPEAKS OF HIM. THIS WAS HOW THEY SPOKE AGAINST THE HOLY GHOST ACTUALY SPEAKING AGAINST JESUS CHRIST ACTUALY SPEAKING AGAINST HOLY SCRIPTURE.
 
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