The Anti-Christ spirit test.

[Ernest T. Bass]

The name T-Rex is also not found in the bible.

The name 'Paul McCartney", is not found in a Greek Text

Now.....Let me show you your verse.

Paul says to prove (examine yourself) that you are in THE Faith... "THE"
JUDE says.>"contend for the REAL Faith".

Notice...>"THE"..."REAL".

See those?.....That is one thing...>"Christ on the Cross, saves me and keeps me saved".

There is your THE REAL faith. John 14:6

Reader....Do you believe you can lose your salvation?..Then you are not in "THE REAL" Faith.
You are a heretic......define by Paul as one who is "bewitched", and proven by your LEGALISM that you believe and teach.

legalism is not there for obedience to God was never called legalism but righteousness....obedience unto righteousness..not obedience unto legalism.
I see you conveniently passed over the verses that I cited that prove the Christian has a role in his own salvation of failing to keep that role results in loss of the promise of eternal life..."But it is happened unto them according to the true proverb, The dog is turned to his own vomit again; and the sow that was washed to her wallowing in the mire."

Origin of OSAS can be found in the garden of Eden when God told Adam and Eve in the day they ate of a certain tree you shall surely die. Satan the father of all lies told them you shall not surely die. The suggestion of Satan's lie is man can live in disobedience to God with no concern for any consequences for sinning, that a saved relationship with God can never be severed no matter how sinful a child of God lives.
Sin entered the world thru Adam and Eve and sin separates man from God Isa 59:2. Yet if it were impossible for Adam and Eve to become lost, impossible for them to die spiritually, impossible to be separated from God then sin must not have entered the world in the garden of Eden, it would be impossible for sin to have entered the world, apostasy would be impossible, a meaningless word.

 

[Robert Gwin]

Robert.

Salvation is "the gift of righteousness".

Look at that concept.

the GIFT.........the GIFT...........of what?

what is God giving as a GIFT?

"The GIFT.....of......RIGHTEOUSNESS"..

What is righteousness, Robert?

Its, holiness......its to be considered SINLESS.

Notice now...>"to be CONSIDERED">......as if you have never sinned.

See that?....That is "The Gift of Salvation"........Its where God sees you only as Born again, Spiritually".....as "MADE RIGHTEOUS"......This is "The GIFT of Righteousness".

See that?
THat is as if you have never sinned, and you are kept this way, by "the Gift of Salvation".

This is what God has done for all the born again.........as Christ on the Cross.

On that Cross, JESUS BECAME our SIN, and we became HIS RIGHTOUSNESS..

"The RIGHTEOUSNESS ......OF GOD<<<<< IN Christ'..

All the born again are IN CHRIST....>"Made Righteous" by "The Gift of Righteousness"

Salvation is definitely a gift for sure, the gift that God gives to those who receive it. Although it is an open invitation to all to accept that gift, why do you suppose so few accept it? Can you think of anything that God requires that is so terrible that a person is willing to side with satan rather than to be obedient to Jehovah?

 

[Behold]

, why do you suppose so few accept it?

Because their minds, are blinded by the Devil.

He has done the same to believers who believe they can lose their salvation.

2 Corinthians 4:4

 

[Behold]

...obedience unto righteousness..not obedience unto legalism.
.

Obedience to only one thing..

"The will of God is the you BELIEVE on Jesus, whom God sent".

When you do this, then God saves you.
Once God saves you, he keeps you., or as Jesus told you..."you shall never perish".

 

[Behold]

the verses that I cited that prove the Christian has a role in his own salvation.

Did you die on the Cross for yourself?
If you did, then keep preaching your deception.

 

[Robert Gwin]

Because their minds, are blinded by the Devil.

He has done the same to believers who believe they can lose their salvation.

2 Corinthians 4:4

Not all of them for sure, but there is little doubt that he does play a large role

 

[Behold]

Not all of them for sure, but there is little doubt that he does play a large role

IN the garden of eden, Adam and God were "One", Spiritually.
When Adam willfully obey SATAN, he departed from "oneness" with God.

How did Satan accomplish this?
He deceived Eve.
How did He do this?
A.) Satan led Eve to question God's word as the final authority.......like this......>"has God said"........."what is your opinion Eve"..
See that?

Now on forums and often from Pulpits..........a person says...>"is that bible true?" "isn't it full of errors"...... "what is your opinion".

See it?
The same Devil, doing the same thing.... because He never changes.

 

[JohnPaul]

How about this as answer to your original post, “I renounce Satan and all of his false promises”

 

[quietthinker]

The Anti-Christ spirit test.
are they available at the pharmacy?

 

[Robert Gwin]

IN the garden of eden, Adam and God were "One", Spiritually.
When Adam willfully obey SATAN, he departed from "oneness" with God.

How did Satan accomplish this?
He deceived Eve.
How did He do this?
A.) Satan led Eve to question God's word as the final authority.......like this......>"has God said"........."what is your opinion Eve"..
See that?

Now on forums and often from Pulpits..........a person says...>"is that bible true?" "isn't it full of errors"...... "what is your opinion".

See it?
The same Devil, doing the same thing.... because He never changes.

I agree sir, they were one with God, and through Jesus' sacrifice, we will be again. It is a rarity that people joined satan willingly as you were 100% correct, Eve was deceived, but Adam was not. Good research sir.

 

[Ernest T. Bass]

Obedience to only one thing..

"The will of God is the you BELIEVE on Jesus, whom God sent".

When you do this, then God saves you.
Once God saves you, he keeps you., or as Jesus told you..."you shall never perish".

Men have also been commanded to repent and be baptized Acts 2:38.


Jn 3:16 KJV whosoever believeth in him should not perish
Jn 3:16 NIV whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life

The KJV renders Jn 3:16 correctly, the NIV does not.

The verb 'believeth" being present tense denotes an action that is ongoing, sustained, continuous.
The verb "should" is subjunctive mood, which is "the mood of possibility and potentiality. The action described may or may not occur, depending upon circumstances." Strong's

When combining the present tense "believeth" with the subjunctive "should" then the meaning is one may or may not perish depending upon the circumstance of one maintaining a present tense belief. If one continues to believe he should not perish. If one quits believing then he should perish. The NIV was an attempt to force Calvinistic ideas into the Bible as eternal security, therefore it erased the subjunctive mood from the NT and replaced it with an indicative to get around the fact one can perish if one does not maintain a present tense, ongoing, sustained belief.

 

[Ernest T. Bass]

Did you die on the Cross for yourself?
If you did, then keep preaching your deception.

Christ died on the cross for every man (Hebrews 2:9) yet every man will not be saved for every man will not take advantage of the benefits (forgiveness of sins) provided by Christ's death by obeying Christ to be saved (Hebrews 5:9). Those who will not obey are letting the benefits of the cross pass them by. Just as those bitten by a poisonous serpent that went to look upon the bronze serpent were healed, (Numbers 21:6-9). Those that would not do so let the healing provided them pass them by. Those who go to the cross of Christ in obedience receive a healing of their sins while those who refuse to obey let that healing benefit pass them by.

Note that those who did the work of going to look upon the bronze serpent, that work was not a work of merit whereby they healed themselves by themselves. But God graciously provided a means for a cure and ONLY those who met God's necessary prerequisite were healed, they simply put themselves in a position to receive God's free gift meriting nothing. Likewise those who obediently come to the cross of Christ put themselves in the position to receive God's free gift of pardon meriting nothing. They therefore are not saving themselves by themselves apart from God and His mercy.

 

[Jim B]

Men have also been commanded to repent and be baptized Acts 2:38.


Jn 3:16 KJV whosoever believeth in him should not perish
Jn 3:16 NIV whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life

The KJV renders Jn 3:16 correctly, the NIV does not.

The verb 'believeth" being present tense denotes an action that is ongoing, sustained, continuous.
The verb "should" is subjunctive mood, which is "the mood of possibility and potentiality. The action described may or may not occur, depending upon circumstances." Strong's

When combining the present tense "believeth" with the subjunctive "should" then the meaning is one may or may not perish depending upon the circumstance of one maintaining a present tense belief. If one continues to believe he should not perish. If one quits believing then he should perish. The NIV was an attempt to force Calvinistic ideas into the body as eternal security, therefore it erased the subjunctive mood from the NT and replaced it with an indicative to get around the fact one can perish if one does not maintain a present tense, ongoing, sustained belief.

The NIV is a better translation than the KJV (as are others) for those of us who speak/read/write 21st Century English. If early 17th Century Englyshe is a better form of communication, forsooth, why does thou not writeth your postes in archaic Englyshe?

John 3:16-18, " For this is the way God loved the world: He gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world should be saved through him. The one who believes in him is not condemned. The one who does not believe has been condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the one and only Son of God." NET v2.1

The meaning is perfectly clear.

 

[Ernest T. Bass]

The NIV is a better translation than the KJV (as are others) for those of us who speak/read/write 21st Century English. If early 17th Century Englyshe is a better form of communication, forsooth, why does thou not writeth your postes in archaic Englyshe?

John 3:16-18, " For this is the way God loved the world: He gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world should be saved through him. The one who believes in him is not condemned. The one who does not believe has been condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the one and only Son of God." NET v2.1

The meaning is perfectly clear.

Hi,

I partly agree for the NIV does a very good job with, for example, Psalms making it easier to understand over more archaic English. But it's the doctrinal error the NIV introduces whereby the bad far outweighs any good by it's attempt to force Calvinistic ideas into the text. There was no valid reason for the NIV to CHANGE from the subjunctive to indicative other than to get around the fact Jn 3:16 shows not perishing is CONDITIONAL upon a sustained present tense belief. Else one can QUIT believing yet still not perish/be saved anyway in unbelief...which is not possible.

 

[Jim B]

Hi,

I partly agree for the NIV does a very good job with, for example, Psalms making it easier to understand over more archaic English. But it's the doctrinal error the NIV introduces whereby the bad far outweighs any good by it's attempt to force Calvinistic ideas into the text. There was no valid reason for the NIV to CHANGE from the subjunctive to indicative other than to get around the fact Jn 3:16 shows perishing or not perishing is CONDITIONAL upon a sustained present tense belief. As there was no valid reason to leave "begotten" from the verse.

What are your translator qualifications? The NIV (and every other reputable translation) has been put together by a team of excellent scholars, using the best resources available, coupled with their understanding of what the "books" mean to the original hearers. The "doctrinal error" is a false flag. Can you prove your assertion that Calvinistic ideas were forced into the text -- with legitimate proof?

 

[Ernest T. Bass]

What are your translator qualifications? The NIV (and every other reputable translation) has been put together by a team of excellent scholars, using the best resources available, coupled with their understanding of what the "books" mean to the original hearers. The "doctrinal error" is a false flag. Can you prove your assertion that Calvinistic ideas were forced into the text -- with legitimate proof?

Just plain reading skills is all that is required to see that the NIV changed Jn 3:16.

John 3:16—Ever Wondered Why It Says "should not perish" Instead of "will not perish"? - POCKETSERMONS.org


"In the Greek the word scholars have accurately translated as SHOULD is in the SUBJUNCTIVE MOOD. This mood indicates, per scholars, and as stated by Wallace as indicating “uncertain but probable.”

This plainly puts in a quandary those who think that “faith alone saves,” yet their favorite verse clearly indicates that “it depends.”

Thus, their choice to follow the narrow path of truth versus the wide road of popular opinion reaches a critical decision point.

Unfortunately, many of them, as so many today in our own churches, collapse under the overwhelming weight of peer pressure.

One Greek instructor explained it away like this:

He admits that the subjunctive mood does indeed suggest–as Wallace stated (p 461)–the idea of faith saving a person being “UNCERTAIN but PROBABLE.” This obviously makes it sounds like Jesus is saying that it is “probable that those who believe in Jesus PROBABLY WON’T perish”–which is correct. But, he says next: “I hope not [i.e., that this isn’t the case]. I believe there is no uncertainty that His [Jesus’] gift of righteousness through our faith secures our future salvation, which of course it does.”

Thus is clearly displayed yet another unfortunate example of a man utterly unwilling to accept the plain truths of Scripture."

In the above article, I believe the "one Greek instructor" refers to Bill Mounce who is connected to the NIV translation. After admitting Wallace is correct, he then tries to insert into the verse his idea of eternal security by saying "I believe there is no uncertainty that His [Jesus’] gift of righteousness through our faith secures our future salvation, which of course it does."
The KJV is the correct rendering with the subjunctive mood for one who keeps on believing SHOULD, PROBABLE to have everlasting life for man of his own volition chooses to believe and man can with that same volition choose to quit believing. There is no unconditional certainty that one who chooses to believe today will with guaranteed certainty choose to believe tomorrow hence the subjunctive mood.

The article continues: (my emp)
"But, what about the most famous verse in the Bible, John 3:16? Doesn’t it suggest that any kind of faith in Jesus will save a person?

John 3:16–For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should* not perish but have everlasting life. [*This is accurately translated as “should not perish” because it’s in the SUBJUNCTIVE MOOD and therefore indicates what is probable, but not certain. The verb, “aπoλλυμι”, in infinitive form means “to destroy.” That’s scary, because Satan is described as a destroyer who goes about as a roaring lion seeking whom he may devour, per 1 Pet 5.8.]

That phrase “should not perish” has been correctly translated–means exactly what it says. In the Greek, that verb is in the SUBJUNCTIVE MOOD, meaning it is PROBABLE, but not CERTAIN.

Why is eternal life not certain even after a person believes in Jesus? Why will those who believe “probably” but not “necessarily” be saved–as the Greek indicates?

Simply because you are a creature of choice, and you have the FREE WILL to choose your own path in life.

In the closing words of inspiration Jesus reminded the world of this, when He said:

Rev 22.17 (NKJV)–And the Spirit and the bride say, “Come!” And let him who hears say, “Come!” And let him who thirsts come. Whoever desires, let him take the water of life freely. [This means you can choose to take the right or wrong path in life, including, turn from your faith in Christ and LOSE YOUR SALVATION if that is your choice.]

1 Timothy 1.18-20–…fight the good fight, holding on to faith and a good conscience. Some have REJECTED these and so have shipwrecked their faith. Among them are Hymenaeus and Alexander, whom I have handed over to Satan to be taught not to blaspheme. [Back in those days, most, but not all people involved in shipwrecks perished.]

Gal 5.4–You who are trying to be justified by THE law have been alienated from Christ; you have fallen away from grace. [We have been saved by, grace; therefore it is obvious that when we fall from grace we are no longer saved. By the way, of the 7 major reputable translations, only the NKJV and NASB drop the article before the word “law.” Doing this was clearly a mistranslation. ]

James 5.19-20–My brothers, if one of you should wander from the truth and someone should bring him back, remember this: Whoever turns a sinner from the error of his way will save him from death and cover over a multitude of sins.

These are by NO MEANS the only passages speaking to the fact that you can lose your salvation if you decide not to obey Christ. Such examples goes on and on and on in the NT. People who close their ears to these obvious teachings are playing with their eternal souls. The Hebrew writer put it this way:

Hebrews 5.8-9–Although He was a son, he learned obedience from what He suffered and, once made perfect, He became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey Him. [In other words, all who DON’T obey Him won’t receive eternal salvation.]"

 

[Ernest T. Bass]

It's long been known the NIV contains errors in it's attempt to force total depravity, faith only, original sin among other doctrinal errors:


https://www.spiritualperspectives.org/articles/documents/nivreview2.html



"Calvinism"
Part of this doctrine teaches that men are born sinners. They believe all mankind is depraved because of the results of the fall of Adam and Eve. All human beings have thereafter been tainted by sin and can of their own accord do nothing good or righteous. Many brethren have written on numerous occasions concerning the NIV's bias in this direction. In the Old Testament Psalm 51:5 has been more than mishandled; the NIV brutally assaulted the passage, as the following comparison shows.

KJV: "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me."

NKJV: "Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me."

NAS: "Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin my mother conceived me."

NIV: "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me."

Notice the shift of focus away from the sinfulness of the mother to the sinfulness of the child. The child became wicked even in the womb. Such a philosophy harmonizes well with Calvinism. They cling to this doctrine despite the fact that no one can inherit anyone else's sins (Eze. 18:20) and regardless of the fact that Jesus illustrated what the kingdom of heaven is like by using the purity and innocence of a child (Mat. 18:4). What was He saying: "Become like this little child who has been sinful from birth, even from conception"? As brother Taylor points out: when David praised God for being "fearfully and wonderfully made" (Psa. 139:14), was he thanking God for creating him a depraved sinner? Even those enamored with the NIV will agree that this is an unfortunate rendering.

"SINFUL NATURE"
Equally horrendous is the arbitrary translation of sarx in the New Testament as "sinful nature." Of the 151 times sarx is used in the New Testament, the King James Version translates it as "flesh" 148 times and "carnal" or "carnally" the other three times (Rom. 8:6-7 and Heb. 9:10). According to Vine, Kittel, and others, sarx does have different shades of meaning, depending on the context. "Sinful nature," however, does not appear among the definitions, although some may seen close to it. But even if some lexicographer did define the word as "sinful nature," would that prove that it is so? No! No more than the NIV's using such a definition proves them correct.

How do we know that "sinful nature" is an incorrect translation? One reason is that the other major translations never chose to use that phrase. The KJV, NKJV, ASV, NAS, and the RSV all use "flesh." Some of these are as literal as they can be; only "dynamic equivalence" could produce such a mis-concept, which underscores what has been pointed out throughout this chapter: the translating committee has complete liberty to use what they "think, feel, or imagine" are equivalents to the words in the Greek text.

The NIV enjoys using about any word but "flesh" to define sarx. In fact, they must have considered it the most versatile word in the New Testament. They translate it "flesh" 33 time, "body" 25, "sinful nature" 25 times, "one" five times, "man" four times, "mankind" (Luke 3:6), "people" (John 17:2; Acts 2:17), "human standards" (John 8:15), "physical" (Rom. 2:28), "in this matter" (Rom. 4:1), "natural selves" (Rom. 6:19), "natural descent" (John 1:13), "external" (Heb. 9:10), "worldly point of view" (2 Cor. 5:16), "worldly manner" (2 Cor. 1:7), "life" (1 Cor. 7:28), "natural" (Rom. 9:8), "race" (Rom. 9:3), "life on earth" (Heb. 5:7), "nature" (Rom. 8:5; Gal. 6:8), "sinful mind" (Rom. 8:7), "sinful man" (Rom. 8:3,6), "outwardly" (Heb. 9:13), "personally" (Col. 2:1), "unspiritual mind" (Col. 2:18), "ordinary way" (Gal. 4:23,29), "another" (1 Cor. 15:29), "human ancestry" (Rom. 9:5), "in this matter" (Rom 4:1), "standards of the world" (2 Cor. 10:2), "good impression outwardly" (Gal. 6:12), "birth" (Eph. 2:11), "evil human desires" (1 Pet. 4:2), "illness" (Gal. 4:13-14), and about a dozen other ways.

When "sinful nature" is used, the translators do add a footnote which provides the alternative "flesh," but such is not exceedingly helpful. First of all, when a text is read publicly as a Scripture reading or as part of the text of a sermon, nobody bothers to say "or flesh." Secondly, when young people memorize a passage of Scripture (and Rom. 8:1 is a good one), they will not likely add "or flesh" when quoting the verse. Even if they did, however, it would still not be helpful because they are not equivalents, dynamic or otherwise!"

 

[Titus]

What are your translator qualifications? The NIV (and every other reputable translation) has been put together by a team of excellent scholars, using the best resources available, coupled with their understanding of what the "books" mean to the original hearers. The "doctrinal error" is a false flag. Can you prove your assertion that Calvinistic ideas were forced into the text -- with legitimate proof?

Shall be
Should be

It should be done
It shall be done

You are standing before your King.
He gives you a direct command to do something. He tells you if you refuse you will be put to death.

You say to him what?
It shall be done my King.
Or
It should be done my King.

Do you think those words have the same meaning?

There is a big difference when using those words in John 3:16.

They cannot both be right!

 

[Behold]

Men have also been commanded to repent and be baptized Acts 2:38.

Here is the will of God for you.

See if you can find water in it .


"the will of God.......is........that you believe on Jesus, whom God sent".


Now, look at your verse....>"repent and be baptized"


Notice that there is no connection between those verses?
= Zero.

So, what is the problem?
The problem is simple........ The Acts of the Apostles, didnt stop in Acts 2..... but you did.
In Acts 2, you have Peter, who does not yet have the revelation of the Grace of God that Jesus gave to PAUL, that Paul calls "my gospel".....as this is the '"Gospel of the Grace of God"........its the one that Paul says is the only.....and if you preach another, such as "water saves"...or "born again of water".....then you are this..... Galatians 1:8.

Listen....
Acts has 28 chapters in it. Its a epistle of progressive revelation, that starts with Christ's death and resurrection, and continues to Acts 28 where Paul tells the Jews, the House of Israel....>"im taking the Gospel to the GENTILES"

See that?
Look closely........>Peter is preaching only to JEWs in Acts 2, and by the time the Epistle of Acts ends 28 chapters later, which is about 30 yrs of literal time passed.....Paul is taking the Gospel to the GENTILES, = away from the JEWS......as a Nation.
That is your "apostle to the Gentiles".......in the "time of the Gentiles", and that is NOT Peter, in ACTS 2.

So, your issue, is that you have not been taught that the bible, the NT, is a progressive revelation.....its keeps changing, as God keeps bringing in the new rules......like the NEW Covenant and the NEW Testament.
And in Acts 2, Peter does not have Paul's revelation that is : "The Gospel of the Grace of God".
He does not have this revelation yet.
See, this revelation was given to Paul by JESUS, as he is the "chosen vessel" for this "time of the gentiles".
Paul came later then the original 12 apostles........and so did that GOSPEL, that Paul defines as : """MY GOSPEL.....""
Peter didnt have this knowledge in Acts 2, and that is why hes talking about John the Baptist's water baptism.
See, the "repent and be baptized", is what John the Baptist was telling the Jews....and that is all that Peter knew to preach, in Acts 2 when he is only talking to JEWS.
SEE IT ????
LATER, he is not preaching that water baptism message, as Paul came to all the Apostles, later, and gave them the revelation of the "Gospel of the Grace of God".....that Paul defines as "MY Gospel". Romans 16:25.

Now.....What is the short version, of this teaching im giving you?

Its this....when an apostle does not have a certain revelation, then they can't teach it or preach it.
And that is Peter in Acts 2.
Later, he has Paul's Gospel.
You still dont.
Wake up !

 

[Titus]

Here is the will of God for you.

See if you can find water in it .


"the will of God.......is........that you believe on Jesus, whom God sent".


Now, look at your verse....>"repent and be baptized"


Notice that there is no connection between those verses?
= Zero.

So, what is the problem?
The problem is simple........ The Acts of the Apostles, didnt stop in Acts 2..... but you did.
In Acts 2, you have Peter, who does not yet have the revelation of the Grace of God that Jesus gave to PAUL, that Paul calls "my gospel".....as this is the '"Gospel of the Grace of God"........its the one that Paul says is the only.....and if you preach another, such as "water saves"...or "born again of water".....then you are this..... Galatians 1:8.

Listen....
Acts has 28 chapters in it. Its a epistle of progressive revelation, that starts with Christ's death and resurrection, and continues to Acts 28 where Paul tells the Jews, the House of Israel....>"im taking the Gospel to the GENTILES"

See that?
Look closely........>Peter is preaching only to JEWs in Acts 2, and by the time the Epistle of Acts ends 28 chapters later, which is about 30 yrs of literal time passed.....Paul is taking the Gospel to the GENTILES, = away from the JEWS......as a Nation.
That is your "apostle to the Gentiles".......in the "time of the Gentiles", and that is NOT Peter, in ACTS 2.

So, your issue, is that you have not been taught that the bible, the NT, is a progressive revelation.....its keeps changing, as God keeps bringing in the new rules......like the NEW Covenant and the NEW Testament.
And in Acts 2, Peter does not have Paul's revelation that is : "The Gospel of the Grace of God".
He does not have this revelation yet.
See, this revelation was given to Paul by JESUS, as he is the "chosen vessel" for this "time of the gentiles".
Paul came later then the original 12 apostles........and so did that GOSPEL, that Paul defines as : """MY GOSPEL.....""
Peter didnt have this knowledge in Acts 2, and that is why hes talking about John the Baptist's water baptism.
See, the "repent and be baptized", is what John the Baptist was telling the Jews....and that is all that Peter knew to preach, in Acts 2 when he is only talking to JEWS.
SEE IT ????
LATER, he is not preaching that water baptism message, as Paul came to all the Apostles, later, and gave them the revelation of the "Gospel of the Grace of God".....that Paul defines as "MY Gospel". Romans 16:25.

Now.....What is the short version, of this teaching im giving you?

Its this....when an apostle does not have a certain revelation, then they can't teach it or preach it.
And that is Peter in Acts 2.
Later, he has Paul's Gospel.
You still dont.
Wake up !

Paul taught there is only ONE gospel just as he taught there is only ONE Holy Spirit.

If someone says there is more than one gospel, then one can also argue there is more than one Holy Spirit.

Ephesians 4:4-5
There is one body and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling
One Lord, one faith, one baptism.

The one faith is the gospel. More than one gospel then one can argue there is more than one Lord.

Jude 3
Beloved when I gave all diligence to write unto you of the common salvation, it was needful for me to write unto you, and exhort you that ye should earnestly contend for the faith( Ephesians 4:5 faith) which was once delivered unto the saints.

The faith is the gospel of Christ.

Now, the great commission Jesus gave in Mark 16:15-16 was also told in Matthew 28:19 and Luke 24:47.

Those verses are the great commission of Jesus.

Before the great commission Jesus had a limited commission,
This commission was for the Jews only,
Matthew 10:5-6
These twelve Jesus sent forth and commanded them saying, Go not into the way of the gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Isreal.

Later Jesus gives the great commission,

Mark 16:15-16
And He said unto them, Go ye into all the world and preach the gospel to EVERY CREATURE,
He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be danmed.

Jesus was recorded in Matthew 28:19 Telling his disciples to
Go ye therefore and teach ALL NATIONS, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.

All nations includes gentiles!
This proves Jesus gospel is the same gospel Paul preached.

For Paul preached the gospel and baptized,
Acts 16:31-34
Paul preached the gospel in Acts 19:1-7 they were taught by Paul to believe and be water baptized.

Just as Peter preached to the Jews on Penetcost, Acts 2:38.
Peter preached the same gospel to a gentile Cornelius in Acts 10:44-48,
47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Spirit as we?
48 And he commanded them to be baptized...

Paul was taught the gospel by God through Ananias and was baptized Acts 22:16.

Paul taught the Corinthian church the gospel and baptized some of them but not all because they were perverting Jesus' baptism by giving men the glory instead of Jesus.

1Corinthians 1:14
I think God i baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius.
There are gentiles in the Corinthian church as well as jews.

Paul taught the same gospel Jesus taught in Mark 16:15-16.
Both jew and gentile are saved the same way by the one gospel of Christ.

1Corinthians 1:16
And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.

Now look Paul taught the gospel to both Jews and gentiles,
Acts 18:4
And he reasoned in the synagogue every Sabbath and persuaded the Jews and the Greeks.

Paul was teaching the gospel to both Jews and gentiles before he said he was done trying to convince the Jews, that he would now only teach the gentiles.

Acts 18:6
And when they opposed themselves and blasphemed, he shook his raiment and said unto them, Your blood be upon your own heads; I am clean: from henceforth I will go unto the gentiles.

There is one gospel of Jesus Christ, Ephesians 4:5