No part of what John wrote implies that this first resurrection is not the first resurrection of the 1,000 years.
The reason I mention John not calling it the first resurrection of the 1,000 years isn't because I disagree with the statement, but because you're using words that John didn't write (adding to the book) to create a separate event that might justify your theory. In other words, you're adjusting scripture to conform to your doctrine. There are two end-time resurrections spoken of in the Bible. The first, before the 1,000 years, is for those who went through the tribulation and didn't worship the beast and/or his image and didn't take his mark. The second one, on the last day, is for everyone else.