Luke 16
Notice this...
The "rich man" in Luke.....this parable, is given before Jesus died on The CROSS.
So, this "rich man in hell" had no chance to "believe on Jesus" and be "SAVED", "born again", as there as no Jesus on the Cross yet. No Blood Atonement.
Jesus had not died for the sin of the world, yet.....= No John 3:16 and John 3:17 yet.
So, here is how to rightly divide The Word in cases like this..so that you are not overlapping the Old Covenant, on Top of the New Covenant, which of course, is how heretics believe and are created, actually.
This is the result of "wrongly dividing" the word of God.
Always remember, ...When Jesus was alive, before He Died, He was only dealing with the House of Israel., and He was "under the law".
See that?
So, when He is teaching, He is talking to JEWS who are under the law of Moses, and that is the OLD Covenant....and that would include the verse about the 'rich man in hell".
After Jesus died on the Cross, the NEW Covenant and the NEW TESTAMENT began, and the "time of the Gentiles" began, and the Gospel of the GRACE of GOD came into effect as Paul showed up, and taught us that the "blood of Jesus" is a "one time eternal sacrifice", and we who have been born again, are not that Old Testament "rich man", who is under the law... But rather we the born again, (not just water baptized) are not under the law, we are "under GRACE", and this Grace, is the blood atonement that is "Jesus became Sin" and we who are born again are become "the Righteousness of GOD", 'In Christ"....
See that? That is the NEW Covenant, and the "rich man in hell" was not born again and is under the LAW, = the OLD Covenant.
Reader... There was no Christ on the Cross at that time.. There was no New Testament or New Covenant....which means that this "rich man in hell" verse cannot be Theologically or Doctrinally appled to a NEW Testament Born Again Believer.
Notice this...
The "rich man" in Luke.....this parable, is given before Jesus died on The CROSS.
So, this "rich man in hell" had no chance to "believe on Jesus" and be "SAVED", "born again", as there as no Jesus on the Cross yet. No Blood Atonement.
Jesus had not died for the sin of the world, yet.....= No John 3:16 and John 3:17 yet.
So, here is how to rightly divide The Word in cases like this..so that you are not overlapping the Old Covenant, on Top of the New Covenant, which of course, is how heretics believe and are created, actually.
This is the result of "wrongly dividing" the word of God.
Always remember, ...When Jesus was alive, before He Died, He was only dealing with the House of Israel., and He was "under the law".
See that?
So, when He is teaching, He is talking to JEWS who are under the law of Moses, and that is the OLD Covenant....and that would include the verse about the 'rich man in hell".
After Jesus died on the Cross, the NEW Covenant and the NEW TESTAMENT began, and the "time of the Gentiles" began, and the Gospel of the GRACE of GOD came into effect as Paul showed up, and taught us that the "blood of Jesus" is a "one time eternal sacrifice", and we who have been born again, are not that Old Testament "rich man", who is under the law... But rather we the born again, (not just water baptized) are not under the law, we are "under GRACE", and this Grace, is the blood atonement that is "Jesus became Sin" and we who are born again are become "the Righteousness of GOD", 'In Christ"....
See that? That is the NEW Covenant, and the "rich man in hell" was not born again and is under the LAW, = the OLD Covenant.
Reader... There was no Christ on the Cross at that time.. There was no New Testament or New Covenant....which means that this "rich man in hell" verse cannot be Theologically or Doctrinally appled to a NEW Testament Born Again Believer.