Davidpt
Well-Known Member
Exactly what i said
Is there even a disagreement then? You gave the impression that you were questioning some or all of what I said in post #235.
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Exactly what i said
It is reasonable in the exact same way that it's reasonable that Ezekiel 39:23-29 is referring not to the judgment of Gog, nor to a regathering of Israel into their own land following the judgment of Gog, but to the same gathering of Israel back into the land that was mentioned in Ezekiel 36:24-38."There shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time" was true of what took place during the days of A4E, but the second prophecy within that prophecy is what we read about in Matthew 24:21-22.
You need to understand this in order to understand Daniel 12 properly (you won't understand Daniel 12 properly if you don't understand this), so look at Ezekiel 36:24 to Ezekiel 39:29, because what you see in this passage is a "Markan Sandwich", and prophetic scripture is full of them:
Ezekiel 36:24-38 opens the prophecy regarding Israel being gathered from the nations back into their own land.
Ezekiel 39:23-29 closes that prophecy.
Ezekiel chapter 37 gives more detail regarding the same prophecy (see Ezekiel 37:23-25).
The above are the two pieces of bread of the Markan sandwich: The bottom piece being Ezekiel 36:24-38 & Ezekiel chapter 37; and the top piece being Ezekiel 39:23-29. Everything else in-between is talking about Gog and Magog coming against Israel following the time they had been gathered from the nations back into their own land.
I.O.W Ezekiel 38:1 through to Ezekiel 39:22 are parenthetic.
* The Temple mentioned in Ezekiel 37:26-29 is elaborated about in the visions of the Tabernacle (Ezekiel 40:2) that Ezekiel saw in Ezekiel chapters 40-48, which all correlates with the visions John saw in the Revelation (chapters 20-22). There is a lot of metaphor being used throughout both books.
IN THE SAME WAY, and as part of the bottom piece of bread in another Markan Sandwich, the text of Daniel 8:11 and Daniel 11:31 links both verses to:-
(a) daily sacrifices for sin being removed (which is what occurred in the 2nd temple in the days of Antiochus IV); and
(b) an abomination of desolation being placed in the holy place (which is what occurred in the 2nd temple in the days of Antiochus IV); and
The above verses are the bottom piece of bread in the Markan Sandwich.
Daniel 12:11-12 links the daily sacrifices for sin being removed in that (2nd) temple of God to 1,290 days and 1,335 days, and closes the prophecy.
Daniel 12:11-12 is the top piece of bread closing the prophecy.
Daniel 12:1-10 (a second bottom piece of bread) is a second prophecy ( a "prophecy within a prophecy").
It's talking about the end of the age, and Daniel 12:13 (the second top piece of bread) closes that second prophecy. It's a prophecy within a prophecy and a Markan Sandwich within a Markan Sandwich.
The reason Daniel 12 is written like this is because A4E is the type of the son of perdition of 2 Thessalonians 2:4 and the abomination of desolation he placed in the holy place, is a type of the abomination of desolation of Matthew 24:15 and 2 Thessalonians 2:4.
Notice how the end of the age mentioned in Daniel 12:1-10 speaks about 3.5 years in verse 7 (not 1,290 days or 1,335 days).
Daniel 12:6-7 correlates with the end of the age in Revelation 10:5-7;
and there are aspects of what is said about the people of God in Daniel 12:1-10 which were true of the Jews in the days of A4E. That's how marvelous this prophecy is:
"And they that be wise shall shine as the brightness of the firmament; and they that turn many to righteousness as the stars for ever and ever" was true of God's faithful remnant during the days of A4E. The rest (the vast majority) apostatized, but the second prophecy within that prophecy is what will occur at the end of this age.
If anyone doesn't understand this it's because the person doesn't understand how biblical prophecy works.
No, i was only seeking to encourage and/or agree with you that there is going to be a great evil unleashed INSIDE mankind that will bring about the unforgivable sin.Is there even a disagreement then? You gave the impression that you were questioning some or all of what I said in post #235.
That's weird. Judas,who was a disciple of Jesus,allowed Satan to possess him?In your mind, and you can correct me if I'm wrong, you only see A4E being a type for the man of sin. While I OTOH see Judas being a type for the man of sin. Think about it for a minute. A4E defiled a literal temple, except 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is not involving a literal temple. How can there possibly be a connection? But when Judas allowed satan to posssess him he defiled his body, he defiled the temple of God(1 Corinthians 3:16-17)
I think that Judas betrayed Jesus in his agreement to lead the armed men (of the chief priests and Pharisees) to the garden of Gethsemane to arrest Jesus when crowds were not around - because Satan had put those thoughts to do so into Judas.That's weird. Judas,who was a disciple of Jesus,allowed Satan to possess him?
Thanks for your explanation.I appreciate that.I think that Judas betrayed Jesus in his agreement to lead the armed men (of the chief priests and Pharisees) to the garden of Gethsemane to arrest Jesus when crowds were not around - because Satan had put those thoughts to do so into Judas.
I don't think that Satan literally possessed Judas at the time to do so. There are different points of view about that though. One is that Satan literally possessed Judas. The other is that Satan whispered thoughts into Judas's mind.
That's weird. Judas,who was a disciple of Jesus,allowed Satan to possess him?
It is reasonable in the exact same way that it's reasonable that Ezekiel 39:23-29 is referring not to the judgment of Gog, nor to a regathering of Israel into their own land following the judgment of Gog, but to the same gathering of Israel back into the land that was mentioned in Ezekiel 36:24-38."There shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time" was true of what took place during the days of A4E, but the second prophecy within that prophecy is what we read about in Matthew 24:21-22.
You need to understand this in order to understand Daniel 12 properly (you won't understand Daniel 12 properly if you don't understand this), so look at Ezekiel 36:24 to Ezekiel 39:29, because what you see in this passage is a "Markan Sandwich", and prophetic scripture is full of them:
Ezekiel 36:24-38 opens the prophecy regarding Israel being gathered from the nations back into their own land.
Ezekiel 39:23-29 closes that prophecy.
Ezekiel chapter 37 gives more detail regarding the same prophecy (see Ezekiel 37:23-25).
The above are the two pieces of bread of the Markan sandwich: The bottom piece being Ezekiel 36:24-38 & Ezekiel chapter 37; and the top piece being Ezekiel 39:23-29. Everything else in-between is talking about Gog and Magog coming against Israel following the time they had been gathered from the nations back into their own land.
I.O.W Ezekiel 38:1 through to Ezekiel 39:22 are parenthetic.
* The Temple mentioned in Ezekiel 37:26-29 is elaborated about in the visions of the Tabernacle (Ezekiel 40:2) that Ezekiel saw in Ezekiel chapters 40-48, which all correlates with the visions John saw in the Revelation (chapters 20-22). There is a lot of metaphor being used throughout both books.
IN THE SAME WAY, and as part of the bottom piece of bread in another Markan Sandwich, the text of Daniel 8:11 and Daniel 11:31 links both verses to:-
(a) daily sacrifices for sin being removed (which is what occurred in the 2nd temple in the days of Antiochus IV); and
(b) an abomination of desolation being placed in the holy place (which is what occurred in the 2nd temple in the days of Antiochus IV); and
The above verses are the bottom piece of bread in the Markan Sandwich.
Daniel 12:11-12 links the daily sacrifices for sin being removed in that (2nd) temple of God to 1,290 days and 1,335 days, and closes the prophecy.
Daniel 12:11-12 is the top piece of bread closing the prophecy.
Daniel 12:1-10 (a second bottom piece of bread) is a second prophecy ( a "prophecy within a prophecy").
It's talking about the end of the age, and Daniel 12:13 (the second top piece of bread) closes that second prophecy. It's a prophecy within a prophecy and a Markan Sandwich within a Markan Sandwich.
The reason Daniel 12 is written like this is because A4E is the type of the son of perdition of 2 Thessalonians 2:4 and the abomination of desolation he placed in the holy place, is a type of the abomination of desolation of Matthew 24:15 and 2 Thessalonians 2:4.
Notice how the end of the age mentioned in Daniel 12:1-10 speaks about 3.5 years in verse 7 (not 1,290 days or 1,335 days).
Daniel 12:6-7 correlates with the end of the age in Revelation 10:5-7;
and there are aspects of what is said about the people of God in Daniel 12:1-10 which were true of the Jews in the days of A4E. That's how marvelous this prophecy is:
"And they that be wise shall shine as the brightness of the firmament; and they that turn many to righteousness as the stars for ever and ever" was true of God's faithful remnant during the days of A4E. The rest (the vast majority) apostatized, but the second prophecy within that prophecy is what will occur at the end of this age.
If anyone doesn't understand this it's because the person doesn't understand how biblical prophecy works.
I agree with what you say above.Speaking of being on housetops.
Matthew 24:17 Let him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his house:
18 Neither let him which is in the field return back to take his clothes.
Does the same thing come to your mind that comes to my mind when looking at language like such--Neither return back? As in apostacy? Isn't that basically what apostacy involves, turning back? If I am correct here, this means what happened in the first century leading up to 70 AD had zero to do with apostacy. All the ones that already converted to Christianity, they apparently made it to safety before the city and temple were destroyed. The unbelieving Jews that were destroyed, it wasn't because of apostacy. They never converted to begin with, therefore, nothing to return back to.
Obviously, 2 Thessalonians 2:4 involves apostacy, even says so in verse 3. Obviously, a literal temple is not meant in 2 Thessalonians 2:4, yet it calls it the temple of God, thus making it a holy place. Except it gets defiled. As to the 2nd temple, it makes zero sense that something that is no longer the holy place once Christ sacrificed Himself, that some 40 years later it would be involving an AOD. For what reason? To accomplish exactly what? It's already obsolete 40 years earlier. In what universe does it make sense that an AOD takes place in something already obsolete, already abandoned by God, pretty much already worthless? The AOD involves the defiling of a holy place. There is no holy place to defile if the 2nd temple is meant. The text plainly says that the AOD involves a holy place, not an unholy place. Obviously, once Christ sacrificed Himself the 2nd temple became an unholy place, rather than continued to be a holy place.
Clearly, the holy place is literally a holy place when Matthew 24:15 is initially meaning. Jesus is not going to call something the holy place unless it actually is a holy place when these things are initially fulfilled. Like I mentioned in other threads, one is speaking out of both sides of their mouth, thus being contradictory, if they agree that the 2nd temple was no longer the holy place once Christ sacrificed Himself, then also agree that the holy place meant in Matthew 24:15 is the 2nd temple up until it is destroyed.
What I would argue is this, where I feel this argument can't be trumped. To apply verse 11 and 12 to the days of A4E is to then violate verse 4. It is not reasonable that all the words in ch 12 are shut up and sealed until the time of the end except for verse 11 and 12.
Daniel 12:4 But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased.
Which has to include verse 11 and 12.
Both are biblical types of the man of sin. Judas Iscariot had no political authority and did not cause his brethren to apostatize by causing them to worship God in a way not handed down to them.In your mind, and you can correct me if I'm wrong, you only see A4E being a type for the man of sin. While I OTOH see Judas being a type for the man of sin. Think about it for a minute. A4E defiled a literal temple, except 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is not involving a literal temple. How can there possibly be a connection? But when Judas allowed satan to posssess him he defiled his body, he defiled the temple of God(1 Corinthians 3:16-17)
Hi Zao is life,Therefore when ye shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, let him which is in the field not return back to take his clothes.
Neither let him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his house.
If this is talking about the holy place that now has the abomination of desolation in it, then what is the 'clothing' and what are the things in it that we would find valuable enough to want to take with us?
I'm pretty sure that the 'clothing' and 'the things in the house' are a metaphor for something, but I don't know what.
Hi DouggHi Zao is life,
I don't think that the clothing and the things in the house are metaphors.
Also, back then and still so, I think the houses had flat roofs with maybe a parapet around the roof, that occupants of the houses would use their house top instead of yards, as there were no yards as the streets came right up to the front doors, in the tightly packed dwellings.
I think what Jesus was stressing is don't delay to flee to the mountains when they see the abomination of desolation standing in the holy place (on the temple mount). i.e. don't spend hours packing up clothes and things of value like jewelry, money, and other things such a eating utensils, cups - i.e. things that a person might take on a trip.
The reason for not delay fleeing is that the authorities are going to quickly block off the escape routes of them fleeing out of Jerusalem to the mountains.
The persons who will have their escape routes blocked are the remnant in Revelation 12:17. The persons who flee right away are the ones in Revelation 12:14-16.
He answers multiple questions and was not obligated to answer them in any certain chronological order.Jesus gave a discourse in Matthew 24. Revelation is not a discourse but a collection of visions shown to John. So Revelation is not the equivalent of the Olivet Discourse.
My takeaway from this post is that you think your "Markan sandwich" is edible and mine is not. Whatever. Also, I can't ever be convinced that Luke 21:20-24 is not a parallel passage to Matthew 24:15-22. Some translations of Daniel 9:27 only mention a singular abomination rather than abominations (plural), so I am fully convinced that Jesus had Daniel 9:26-27 in mind when referring to a prophecy from Daniel in relation to the abomination of desolation. Especially since what He was talking about was in relation to the destruction of the temple and Daniel 9:26-27 also refers to that. We've been over all of this several times and we still disagree. That tells me that it is very unlikely that we ever agree on this. So, we'll have to agree to disagree.This is not guess-work. The grammar of the passages and the word therefore in Matthew 24:15 as well as the word before in Luke 21:12 are all important, and brushing aside the meaning of these words and the grammar used, is engaging in guess-work, IMO.
(1) Luke is using a Markan sandwich, where verses 8-11 is the bottom piece of bread and verses 25-36 is the top piece of bread - which are both talking about the end of the age and time of Jesus' return.
In-between the two pieces of bread Luke is speaking about the first century, where the word BEFORE in Luke 21:12 indicates that the persecution Jesus' disciples were going to endure (verses 12-19) would take place even BEFORE Jerusalem was destroyed (verses 12-24).
This WAS their experience, and Nero's persecution erupted and ended even before AD 70.
(2) I know that you believe that Matthew also uses a Markan sandwich, where you believe verses 15-22 of Matthew 24 don't belong with verses 9-14 and verse 23 onward, but Matthew does not use the word BEFORE in verse 15, but the word THEREFORE, and the conjunctive words used throughout the text of Matthew 24:9-31 do not warrant or support separating verses 15-22 from the rest of the text of Matthew 24, IMO.
We're not going to agree on that.
In verses 10 and 13 of Mark 13, Mark ties the persecution the disciples were warned they will endure, to the gospel first being published among all nations, and to the promise that the one who endures to the end will be saved - the way Matthew's account does. Then Mark speaks about the abomination of desolation (singular) standing where it ought not. It follows Matthew's account (or Matthew follows Mark's account, according to some scholars).
I believe the abominations (plural) mentioned in Daniel 9:26-27 are indeed associated with the destruction of Jerusalem and its temple in AD 70 (I believe those abominations were in the form of continued animal sacrifices for sins made during the 40 years between Christ's crucifixion and AD 70, even while the gospel was being preached by the Jewish disciples).
* Nothing else happening to, or occurring in a city and a temple that is not holy unto God constitutes the abominations (plural) that are mentioned in Daniel 9:26-27.
But IMO those abominations are not talking about the same abomination of desolation (singular) mentioned in Daniel's prophecies, and by Jesus in Matthew and Mark's accounts.
* In Luke 21:12-24 Luke talks about the persecution the disciples would endure before the city and temple were destroyed - and the sign Jesus gives of the close of that period of persecutions, is armies gathering against Jerusalem.
* Matthew & Mark talk about the tribulation the disciples are to endure at the end of the age - and the sign Jesus gives of the end of the age, is an abomination of desolation appearing in the holy place, where it does not belong. I believe it's talking about 2 Thessalonians 2:4 and the biblical type is the abomination of desolation placed in the holy place by A4E in the 2nd century BC.
================================="'Abomination of Desolation' is a phrase from the Book of Daniel describing the pagan sacrifices with which the 2nd century BC Greek king Antiochus IV Epiphanes replaced the twice-daily offering in the Jewish temple, or alternatively the altar on which such offerings were made."
(Abomination of desolation - Wikipedia)=================================
That guy spiritualizes almost everything. Why would you think you can trust anything he says? There is no indication at all that Jesus was not being literal there.Before I elaborate, just so you know I believe that what TribulationSigns said to you about the meaning of being on a housetop is highly plausible:
"And them that worship the host of heaven upon the housetops; and them that worship and that swear by Yhwh, and that swear by Malcham" Zephaniah 1:5.
Luke 12
2 For there is nothing covered, that shall not be revealed; neither hid, that shall not be known.
3 Therefore whatsoever ye have spoken in darkness shall be heard in the light; and that which ye have spoken in the ear in closets shall be proclaimed upon the housetops.
It's not literal housetops being spoken of. It's a metaphor, as TribulationSigns said. I never saw this before. I'm glad I read his post.
You are trying to relate unrelated verses. In Luke 17 there is no reference to anyone needing to flee to the mountains. Are you forgetting that Matthew 24:17 was said in relation to the need to flee to the mountains? When Jesus comes, no one will be able to flee to the mountains because of the suddenness of everything that will happen once He comes. That is not the context of Matthew 24:15-17 which is in relation to people needing to flee from the coming tribulation. No one knows the day or hour of Christ's future coming so there will be no warnings like an abomation of desolation standing in the holy place and armies surrounding Jerusalem that tells Jewish believers that they need to flee to the mountains. You are missing that the context of Matthew 24:15-17 is completely different from the context of Luke 17:31-32. One relates to a local tribulation in Judea (Matt 24:15-17) and one relates to the global future coming of Christ (Luke 17:31-32).Let alone your goods in the house, if the children in the house were not waiting and watching with you on the housetop, then don't first go trying to call them, because the groom has come, and it's too late for them:
Luke 17:31-32
31 In that day, he which shall be upon the housetop, and his stuff in the house, let him not come down to take it away: and he that is in the field, let him likewise not return back. Remember Lot’s wife.
"Remember Lot’s wife" tells you exactly how suddenly what's mentioned in Matthew 24:21-22 is going to come: "Look! I will come like a thief! Blessed is the one who stays alert and does not lose his clothes so that he will not have to walk around naked and his shameful condition be seen." Revelation 16:15.
But, in terms of great tribulation occurring before Christ's future return, why would it be particularly troublesome for pregnant women and nursing mothers in relation to that? It's very easy to see why it would be particularly troublesome for them to flee to the mountains before the destruction of 70 AD, but I don't see how that could relate to tribulation before Christ's return. What is your explanation for that?With regard to pregnant and nursing mothers, Jesus was talking about those who would be around to see the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70 (Luke 21:20-24), which is why Jesus used the same illustration regarding those who will be around to see the coming great tribulation.
Matthew 24:19 How dreadful it will be in those days for pregnant women and nursing mothers! 20 Pray that your flight will not take place in winter or on the Sabbath. 21 For then there will be great distress, unequaled from the beginning of the world until now—and never to be equaled again.It's all illustrations, or metaphorical. Matthew 24:15-22 and Luke 21:20-24 are not talking about the same period. One has occurred. The other is coming.
I'm pretty sure that the 'clothing' and 'the things in the house' are a metaphor for something, but I don't know what.
It is impossible for man to be sinless unless that man is Christ. Yet, it is not impossible for men to be holy, otherwise 1 Corinthians 3:16-17 makes zero sense. Can one be holy without being sinless? Apparently, otherwise God is going to destroy everyone since no one can live up to 'sinless', other than Christ.
Hi Zao is life,IMO verses 12-16 are talking about things that took place in the first century AD, and verses 17 is talking about what has been taking place since then, and will culminate in the beast's war with the remnant of her seed (Revelation 13:7).