I offer the following with much speculation (intended) just for the purpose of discussion.
The description given by John of the wedding at Cana (John 2:1-10) has been a favourite focus of argument between my father in-law and I. Frank claims it to be a description of Jesus' own wedding. The evidence of this he suggests is that Jesus' mother obviously carried some authority in the household. Given the lowly status of women in the middle east during this period, the authority of Mary at this celebration must therefore signify that the groom was one of her own children. Frank likes to further support this contention with the observation that marriage was so critical to personal status that an unmarried Jesus could not have gained His popular following and respect as a religious scholar.
I don't have any problem with the idea of a married Jesus and I can't totally rule out the possibility that He could have married. However this event is described in such impersonal terms that it is unreasonable to assume John would include a descitpion of Jesus marriage without making it clear that Jesus was in fact the focus of the celebration. More plausible is that the wedding was for a close family relative. This easily accounts for the authority assumeed by Mary. It may even be plausible that the wedding could have been for one of Jesus' brothers.
Who the wedding was really for we just don't know, but it is clear that John's focus was not so much on the wedding, but what Jesus did at the wedding. Someone suggested Jesus just turned up late, unannounced and with several mates in tow. I don't think the description by John supports that conclusion, but it would be a nice explanation for the wine running out.
More important to me in this passage is verse 4:
And Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does this have to do with me? My hour has not yet come."
This verse may actually provide the proof that Jesus was not married - at least at the time of the wedding. I have heard it said (note my lack of supporting references) in Jewish custom of the period the groom was generally considered responsible for ensuring adequate preparations and provisions for the wedding feast. So when Jesus says "My hour has not yet come" is he really telling us - This is not my wedding to provide for?
That can of course lead to speculation that he is saying the time when he will leave to make preparations for a wedding is still to come.
The description given by John of the wedding at Cana (John 2:1-10) has been a favourite focus of argument between my father in-law and I. Frank claims it to be a description of Jesus' own wedding. The evidence of this he suggests is that Jesus' mother obviously carried some authority in the household. Given the lowly status of women in the middle east during this period, the authority of Mary at this celebration must therefore signify that the groom was one of her own children. Frank likes to further support this contention with the observation that marriage was so critical to personal status that an unmarried Jesus could not have gained His popular following and respect as a religious scholar.
I don't have any problem with the idea of a married Jesus and I can't totally rule out the possibility that He could have married. However this event is described in such impersonal terms that it is unreasonable to assume John would include a descitpion of Jesus marriage without making it clear that Jesus was in fact the focus of the celebration. More plausible is that the wedding was for a close family relative. This easily accounts for the authority assumeed by Mary. It may even be plausible that the wedding could have been for one of Jesus' brothers.
Who the wedding was really for we just don't know, but it is clear that John's focus was not so much on the wedding, but what Jesus did at the wedding. Someone suggested Jesus just turned up late, unannounced and with several mates in tow. I don't think the description by John supports that conclusion, but it would be a nice explanation for the wine running out.
More important to me in this passage is verse 4:
And Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does this have to do with me? My hour has not yet come."
This verse may actually provide the proof that Jesus was not married - at least at the time of the wedding. I have heard it said (note my lack of supporting references) in Jewish custom of the period the groom was generally considered responsible for ensuring adequate preparations and provisions for the wedding feast. So when Jesus says "My hour has not yet come" is he really telling us - This is not my wedding to provide for?
That can of course lead to speculation that he is saying the time when he will leave to make preparations for a wedding is still to come.
