bbyrd009
Groper
- Nov 30, 2016
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so you say, but that the grace Church is adopted Israel and that the Jews were dispersed because God divorced them is maybe not getting a hearing in your mind, causing you to qualify a Book of NT Scripture as being for "a Jew, only," when we are told that there is no Jew or Greek, male or female, in the kingdom.Look, it is plain to me that James was writing to Jews who were under the law of Moses. He said so in James 1:1. For people to insist that what James wrote was to the grace church is to refuse the truth and try to establish a lie.
So iow you might be accused of hearing with the same hearing as those James wrote his Book to, but that does not mean that that is the best way to hear, as you supposedly know better than those, who had not yet accepted that "there is no Jew or Greek in the kingdom."
understand that this is just a perspective, ok, i don't personally care if you accept James or not, and faith without works is dead regardless of James anyway