That's not BoL conclusion, it's yours.
You can't read. BoL is not talking about decapitation as cleansing, he's talking about what God can or cannot do.
If a person's life isn't over yet, how are they supposed to endure to the end? You are not making any sense.
Those who have washed their robes in the blood of the lamb are predestined to glory, which they cannot lose. Those predestined to grace can lose it. It's possible to go directly to heaven after death, but most of us don't die in a state of perfect holiness. It doesn't mean we are not saved.
The "second chance theory" is for ignorant anti-Catholics who can't be bothered to find out the truth of the matter. Purgatory is not a second chance. How many times must purgatory be explained to you, brakelite? Can't get it past your prejudice?
I would like to know what "traditions" you think I am bound to, and I would like to know what you think a tradition is. Since I've defined them 1000 times on this board you should know what a tradition is by now. It seems you still don't get it.
I have questions epostle1, if I may be so bold…
Since you have defined the term ‘tradition(s)’ of your religion 1000x in posts on this site, can you list them for all of us to review?
If you already did this, I most probably was too new here to read them. There must be at least 40 significant ones that Jesus and the apostles would be proud to own as traditions of God?
In the Catholic Catechism of the church (1031), what do the words ‘grace’ and ‘friendship’ mean to you in this text?
(CCC 1031) which is afforded to “all who die in God’s grace and friendship, but still imperfectly purified” so that they might “achieve the holiness necessary to enter the joy of heaven” (CCC 1030).
Of course, it is directly related to the concept of purgatory as you well know.
If purgatory is a tradition of God given to your religion by the apostles, or those that immediately followed them, why did it take between 1000-1300 years later to make it an official dogma of your religion?
The following are the three typical scripture passages used by your religion to show scripture supports the concept of purgatory. The last verse is from a book of the Apocrypha that I consider inspired by man; and this scripture nullifies the atonement work of Jesus, that he alone could accomplish. If anyone man could atone for someone’s spiritual ‘imperfections’ and sins, then there is no need to believe in the works of Jesus, the Christ.
(1Co 3:11) For no one can lay a foundation other than that which is laid, which is Jesus Christ.
(1Co 3:12) Now if anyone builds on the foundation with gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, straw—
(1Co 3:13) each one's work will become manifest, for the Day will disclose it, because it will be revealed by fire, and the fire will test what sort of work each one has done.
(1Co 3:14) If the work that anyone has built on the foundation survives, he will receive a reward.
(1Co 3:15) If anyone's work is burned up, he will suffer loss, though he himself will be saved, but only as through fire. (ALL ESV)
To a non-practitioner of your religion this verse means in context, that a ‘saved’ person can lose blessings if they live their lives that is considered worthless to God. – it will be revealed by God’s standard not our own. They get into heaven, although most probably considered the least in the Kingdom.
(Rev 21:27) But nothing unclean will ever enter it, nor anyone who does what is detestable or false, but only those who are written in the Lamb's book of life.(ESV)
To a non-practitioner of your religion this verse means that all those saved in Jesus are considered perfect and considered the image of God in heaven. It does not mean that we must do more works to become spiritually perfect. If that were the case no one would be written in the Book of Life. Works by the carnal mind on earth cannot make anyone perfect. Works in an intermediate state, between earth and heaven cannot make any one perfect. Where is this place described in scripture anyway? I have not found it yet.
(2Ma 12:43) And making a gathering, he sent twelve thousand drachms of silver to Jerusalem for sacrifice to be offered for the sins of the dead, thinking well and religiously concerning the resurrection.
(2Ma 12:44) (For if he had not hoped that they that were slain should rise again, it would have seemed superfluous and vain to pray for the dead,)
(2Ma 12:45) And because he considered that they who had fallen asleep with godliness, had great grace laid up for them.
(2Ma 12:46) It is therefore a holy and wholesome thought to pray for the dead, that they may be loosed from sins. (ALL DRB)
These uninspired words speak of paying money as an acceptable offering and praying for the sins of dead people – to make them perfect in the eyes of God.
Does Jesus’ death mean anything if you can pray for dead people and their sins, because they never accepted Christ in their earthly life?
Bless you,
APAK