YES, Lord Jesus Christ DID Claim To Be GOD

[Davy]

The original writers of the New Testament knew exactly who Jesus was and they did not believe he was his Father. This whole Jesus is God thing is another gospel that has entered.

When you pray you pray to God in Jesus name, you do not pray to Jesus. The Father is the one at the top. Jesus is the way to get to the Father.

Apostle Peter understood, which is why when Jesus asked who he thought He was, Peter said He was "the Christ". That "Christ" is a HEAVENLY TITLE pointing to being co-equal with God The Father, and is not a flesh title.

You won't understand this matter as long you keep trying to understand it as 'fleshy' philosophy.

 

[Aunty Jane]

Yes,your post explains you are not JW.

https://www.jw.org/en/bible-teachings/questions/virgin-mary-immaculate-conception/#link2

What was the purpose of the virgin birth?​

God used the virgin birth to provide Jesus with a perfect human body so that Jesus could save mankind from sin and death. (John 3:16; Hebrews 10:5) God transferred Jesus’ life to the womb of Mary. Thereafter, God’s holy spirit evidently shielded the developing embryo from acquiring any imperfection.—Luke 1:35.
Jesus was thus born a perfect human, an equal to what Adam had been before he sinned. The Bible says of Jesus: “He committed no sin.” (1 Peter 2:22) As a perfect man, Jesus could pay the ransom to redeem humans from sin and death.—1 Corinthians 15:21, 22; 1 Timothy 2:5, 6.

Wow...you not only misinterpret scripture but also the portion of the Watchtower publication you quoted.....

As far as I know the “immaculate conception” relates to Mary not Jesus and is exclusively a “Catholic” doctrine.....so what is stated in the quotation that is not stated in scripture? No one questioned the virgin birth.....you assumed that it was Christ who was immaculately conceived, but the Bible says he was ‘miraculously’ conceived......i.e. like Isaac and John B as well......the work of God’s spirit.

 

[BlessedPeace]

Wow...you not only misinterpret scripture but also the portion of the Watchtower publication you quoted.....

As far as I know the “immaculate conception” relates to Mary not Jesus and is exclusively a “Catholic” doctrine.....so what is stated in the quotation that is not stated in scripture? No one questioned the virgin birth.....you assumed that it was Christ who was immaculately conceived, but the Bible says he was ‘miraculously’ conceived......i.e. like Isaac and John B as well......the work of God’s spirit.

No, I don't misinterpret scripture.

BTW, that information was provided by a Jehovah Witness website.

 

[Davy]

Does scripture contradict itself…or is it that interpretation contradicts other interpretation?
Isa 43:11…Complete Jewish Bible….

“I, I am the Lord, and besides Me there is no Savior.”

יאאָֽנֹכִ֥י אָֽנֹכִ֖י יְהֹוָ֑ה וְאֵ֥ין מִבַּלְעָדַ֖י מוֹשִֽׁיעַ:

“The Lord” here is Yahweh as we can see the tetragrammaton in the Hebrew characters.
So it is Yahweh who is the Savior of his people….yet that salvation comes “through” the savior he “sent” as Jude 1:24-25 states……(NASB)

You don't even understand what you quote.

Jesus Christ is The Savior, so how can that verse be ONLY about God The Father?


And you mean all the Bible Scriptures like those below aren't really true???...

Isa 43:10-11
10 Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and My servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe Me, and understand that I am He: before Me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after Me.
11 I, even I, am the LORD; and beside Me there is no Saviour.
KJV

Luke 2:11
11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, Which is Christ the Lord.
KJV

John 10:30
30 I and My Father are one.
KJV

Acts 4:12
12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
KJV

Titus 2:13
13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;
KJV

1 John 4:14-15
14 And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world.
15 Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God.
KJV

Jude 25
25 To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen.
KJV

Those Scriptures above are Biblical proof that Jesus of Nazareth is GOD The Savior come in the flesh, that Christ and The Father are ONE. The only difference is with Jesus' flesh of being born through Mary's womb for the purpose of His death on the cross in order to defeat the devil, and death, for us. (See Hebrews 2:14). The Father was excepted in that crucifixion. But the Spirit of Jesus as Immanuel (God with us) remained ONE with The Father in Heaven even while Jesus was in a flesh body to die on the cross. THIS... is what the Jews have trouble understanding, because their thinking mostly remains only in fleshy things, thus lacking spiritual understanding.

 

[Traveler]

I wish people would stop taking things out of context, If you go a little further down in John chapter 10 you get this, and this is Jesus himself speaking.

Joh 10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
Joh 10:37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.
Joh 10:38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.

 

[Traveler]

Apostle Peter understood, which is why when Jesus asked who he thought He was, Peter said He was "the Christ". That "Christ" is a HEAVENLY TITLE pointing to being co-equal with God The Father, and is not a flesh title.

You won't understand this matter as long you keep trying to understand it as 'fleshy' philosophy.

It is only the Father that called himself the God of the Gods, not Jesus.

 

[Aunty Jane]

That above Scripture reference above is just a BALONEY interpretation using a CORRUPT BIBLE TRANSLATION. The John 10:33 verse does NOT say "a god".

The Greek is not corrupted but the trinitarian versions of the Bible in English most certainly are when it comes to defining “theos” from “ho theos”.....This is most notable in John 1:1 where “theos” without the definite article is translated with a capital “G”.....there are no capitals in Greek.

Let me refresh your memory.....”theos” in Greek means.....

“a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities”

Strongs primary definition....portrays “theos” as a general description, not denoting a specific “god”.

The Greeks were polytheists who had a multitude of these “gods” all of whom had names.....but they had no way to distinguish the monotheistic God of the Jews because he was nameless at that time. The Jews had ceased to use God’s name in their speech and the pronunciation of it in their scripture was lost, so they used the definite article “ho theos ” (The God) when speaking about Jehovah, as opposed to speaking about the divine son of God as just “theos”, as described above as “a general name for deities or divinities”.
Was Jesus divine? No question about that!

Because there is no indefinite article (“a” or “an”) in Greek it is added to the English translations so that it flows more smoothly in English. Every time you see an “a” or an “an” in an English Bible, it is added. So to translate “theos” without the definite article as God (capital”G”) is misleading.

An example of this would be in 2 Cor 4:3-4...
“And even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled to those who are perishing, in whose case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.”

Satan is called “the god of this world”...small “g”.

If you read only the first 5 verses of 2 Cor 4 in a Greek to English Interlinear, you will see how many times God (Jehovah) is referred to with the definite article, but it is never translated with regard to God, only to other things and people. Like John 1:1....there is “ho theos” when referring to the Father but no definite article when referring to the son. This makes “the Word” (ho logos) who was “with ho theos” “a god” or “divine one”.
It is obvious that none of you have even looked at the Greek to see if what we say is true.

Note all the Bible version translations of that John 10:33 verse which points to GOD, and not to "a god" which is a false addition to The Bible!

Actually, note all the English translations that ignore an important identifying word that is clearly seen in the Greek text......could they all be wrong? Since they all had trinitarian translators, it is no stretch to see that none of them adhere to what the original texts say, because they want to promote their favourite doctrine.

Who notices that a little word is missing in English? Jehovah does....and so do his true worshippers.

 

[Aunty Jane]

You don't even understand what you quote.

Jesus Christ is The Savior, so how can that verse be ONLY about God The Father?

Because the Father is the one who “sent” Jesus to save mankind.....if God had not “sent” him, no redemption would have been possible....it’s right in front of your nose.....the Savior who sends the savior is also a savior.....

And you mean all the Bible Scriptures like those below aren't really true???...

Nope...they are all accurate.....you just misinterpret them.

Those Scriptures above are Biblical proof that Jesus of Nazareth is GOD The Savior come in the flesh, that Christ and The Father are ONE. The only difference is with Jesus' flesh of being born through Mary's womb for the purpose of His death on the cross in order to defeat the devil, and death, for us. (See Hebrews 2:14). The Father was excepted in that crucifixion. But the Spirit of Jesus as Immanuel (God with us) remained ONE with The Father in Heaven even while Jesus was in a flesh body to die on the cross. THIS... is what the Jews have trouble understanding, because their thinking mostly remains only in fleshy things, thus lacking spiritual understanding.

Not a thing you said there is the truth......that is Christendom’s version of the Bible....divided and unreliable just like the Jewish sects of Jesus’ day...only more of them...

None so blind apparently.....

 

[BlessedPeace]

It is only the Father that called himself the God of the Gods, not Jesus.

John 14:9
Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you for so long a time, and you do not know Me yet, Philip, nor recognize clearly who I am? Anyone who has seen Me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father?’

John 14:9 - Bible Gateway

www.biblegateway.com

 

[Aunty Jane]

I wish people would stop taking things out of context, If you go a little further down in John chapter 10 you get this, and this is Jesus himself speaking.

Another thing they miss in that passage (John 10:31-36) is that Jehovah himself called human judges “gods” (theos) because they were acting as his representatives.

 

[Jack]

The reason Emmanuel was God,Jesus born to die so to redeem his Elect,is because a man could not die and do this.

He had to be perfect and without sin in order to take the sins of the Elect upon himself and die and become the propitiation for sins.

Only God is perfect. Only God could come in the full form of human,since he created us from himself in his image and likeness,and accomplish that.

Very well said!

 

[Jack]

No, it says the opposite.

Even the JW Bible insists that Jesus is God!

NWT Heb 1:6 Let all God's angels WORSHIP him!

 

[Aunty Jane]

John 14:9
Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you for so long a time, and you do not know Me yet, Philip, nor recognize clearly who I am? Anyone who has seen Me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father?’

John 14:9 - Bible Gateway

www.biblegateway.com

......and then we run into a contradiction in John 1:18....

“No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.” (NASB)
Do you see Christendom’s use of capitals to convey something that is not really there in the scriptures?
If “no one has seen God at any time”.....how many thousands saw Jesus? Who is this “only begotten God” (capital “G”)(“monogenes theos”) who has explained the Father to us?....if there was a small “g” there, you might understand it correctly.

He is the one who is “in the bosom of the Father”.

What is the “bosom of the Father” indicating to a Jew? It is a position of favor with God.

Please explain how “God” can be “begotten” when all “sons” have a father who is their ‘begetter’ and who existed before them?

This firstborn son was “in the beginning with God”.....he is said to be “the firstborn of ALL creation” (Col 1:15)...that means he was God’s “only begotten son” well before his earthly mission, so his ‘begetting’ does not relate to his human birth.

Nothing in your belief system connects with the whole Bible.....it takes bits and pieces out of context and tries to marry them with other bits and pieces and before long, all we see is confusion because none of these make one cohesive story.....you are trying to pretend that there are no glaring flaws in your belief system.....but the holes are big enough to drive a Mac Truck through.....

We are trying to tell you something you do not want to hear.....because if that one teaching is in error, your whole belief system crashes......and it’s going to crash, big time very soon. You don’t have to crash with it...like the belligerent Jews who denied Jesus......or the wicked ones in Noah’s day who ignored his warning. (Matt 24:37-39)

Please listen.....and consider the evidence put before you....with an open heart.

 

[BlessedPeace]

......and then we run into a contradiction in John 1:18....

“No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.” (NASB)
Do you see Christendom’s use of capitals to convey something that is not really there in the scriptures?
If “no one has seen God at any time”.....how many thousands saw Jesus? Who is this “only begotten God” (capital “G”)(“monogenes theos”) who has explained the Father to us?....if there was a small “g” there, you might understand it correctly.

He is the one who is “in the bosom of the Father”.

What is the “bosom of the Father” indicating to a Jew? It is a position of favor with God.

Please explain how “God” can be “begotten” when all “sons” have a father who is their ‘begetter’ and who existed before them?

This firstborn son was “in the beginning with God”.....he is said to be “the firstborn of ALL creation” (Col 1:15)...that means he was God’s “only begotten son” well before his earthly mission, so his ‘begetting’ does not relate to his human birth.

Nothing in your belief system connects with the whole Bible.....it takes bits and pieces out of context and tries to marry them with other bits and pieces and before long, all we see is confusion because none of these make one cohesive story.....you are trying to pretend that there are no glaring flaws in your belief system.....but the holes are big enough to drive a Mac Truck through.....

We are trying to tell you something you do not want to hear.....because if that one teaching is in error, your whole belief system crashes......and it’s going to crash, big time very soon. You don’t have to crash with it...like the belligerent Jews who denied Jesus......or the wicked ones in Noah’s day who ignored his warning. (Matt 24:37-39)

Please listen.....and consider the evidence put before you....with an open heart.

......and then we run into a contradiction in John 1:18....

“No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.” (NASB)
Do you see Christendom’s use of capitals to convey something that is not really there in the scriptures?
If “no one has seen God at any time”.....how many thousands saw Jesus? Who is this “only begotten God” (capital “G”)(“monogenes theos”) who has explained the Father to us?....if there was a small “g” there, you might understand it correctly.

He is the one who is “in the bosom of the Father”.

What is the “bosom of the Father” indicating to a Jew? It is a position of favor with God.

Please explain how “God” can be “begotten” when all “sons” have a father who is their ‘begetter’ and who existed before them?

This firstborn son was “in the beginning with God”.....he is said to be “the firstborn of ALL creation” (Col 1:15)...that means he was God’s “only begotten son” well before his earthly mission, so his ‘begetting’ does not relate to his human birth.

Nothing in your belief system connects with the whole Bible.....it takes bits and pieces out of context and tries to marry them with other bits and pieces and before long, all we see is confusion because none of these make one cohesive story.....you are trying to pretend that there are no glaring flaws in your belief system.....but the holes are big enough to drive a Mac Truck through.....

We are trying to tell you something you do not want to hear.....because if that one teaching is in error, your whole belief system crashes......and it’s going to crash, big time very soon. You don’t have to crash with it...like the belligerent Jews who denied Jesus......or the wicked ones in Noah’s day who ignored his warning. (Matt 24:37-39)

Please listen.....and consider the evidence put before you....with an open heart.

......and then we run into a contradiction in John 1:18....

“No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.” (NASB)
Do you see Christendom’s use of capitals to convey something that is not really there in the scriptures?
If “no one has seen God at any time”.....how many thousands saw Jesus? Who is this “only begotten God” (capital “G”)(“monogenes theos”) who has explained the Father to us?....if there was a small “g” there, you might understand it correctly.

He is the one who is “in the bosom of the Father”.

What is the “bosom of the Father” indicating to a Jew? It is a position of favor with God.

Please explain how “God” can be “begotten” when all “sons” have a father who is their ‘begetter’ and who existed before them?

This firstborn son was “in the beginning with God”.....he is said to be “the firstborn of ALL creation” (Col 1:15)...that means he was God’s “only begotten son” well before his earthly mission, so his ‘begetting’ does not relate to his human birth.

Nothing in your belief system connects with the whole Bible.....it takes bits and pieces out of context and tries to marry them with other bits and pieces and before long, all we see is confusion because none of these make one cohesive story.....you are trying to pretend that there are no glaring flaws in your belief system.....but the holes are big enough to drive a Mac Truck through.....

We are trying to tell you something you do not want to hear.....because if that one teaching is in error, your whole belief system crashes......and it’s going to crash, big time very soon. You don’t have to crash with it...like the belligerent Jews who denied Jesus......or the wicked ones in Noah’s day who ignored his warning. (Matt 24:37-39)

Please listen.....and consider the evidence put before you....with an open heart.

Read the passage that tells us no one can look upon God in his full power and live.

 

[Peterlag]

That's just really a stupid... statement above, just like a BLIND PHARISEE JEW would say like those Jesus was rebuking in John 8, and told them that He is The I AM...

John 8:56-59
56 "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day: and he saw it, and was glad."

57 Then said the Jews unto Him, "Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast Thou seen Abraham?"

58 Jesus said unto them, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am."

59 Then took they up stones to cast at Him: but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.
KJV

There's no teaching on it. Nowhere. Not the New or Old Testament. Nobody. Not even one person ever taught it. All you have is scraps scattered all over the Bible in pieces.

 

[Traveler]

Psa 2:1 Why do the heathen rage, and the people imagine a vain thing?
Psa 2:2 The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD, and against his anointed, saying,
Psa 2:3 Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us.
Psa 2:4 He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the Lord shall have them in derision.
Psa 2:5 Then shall he speak unto them in his wrath, and vex them in his sore displeasure.
Psa 2:6 Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion.
Psa 2:7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.
Psa 2:8 Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession.
Psa 2:9 Thou shalt break them with a rod of iron; thou shalt dash them in pieces like a potter's vessel.
Psa 2:10 Be wise now therefore, O ye kings: be instructed, ye judges of the earth.
Psa 2:11 Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling.
Psa 2:12 Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and ye perish from the way, when his wrath is kindled but a little. Blessed are all they that put their trust in him.

 

[Big Boy Johnson]

Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

Yeah, that was when Jesus took upon flesh and was born in to this world in a physical body.

Prior to that, He's always been with God... Jesus IS God's Word and the Word and God cannot be separated.

 

[Aunty Jane]

Read the passage that tells us no one can look upon God in his full power and live.

Oh dear....there is just no getting through that centuries old indoctrination.....is there?

Is that what John said? Or is that something God told Moses when he made the request to see God’s glory, way back before Jesus began his earthly mission....before the Israelites even entered the Promised Land?
What was God’s reply?.....

19 “He said: "I will let all My goodness pass before you; I will proclaim the name of the Lord before you, and I will favor when I wish to favor, and I will have compassion when I wish to have compassion."
20 And He said, "You will not be able to see My face, for man shall not see Me and live." (Exodus 33:19-20. Jewish Tanakh)

Yes, apparently we as mere mortals cannot see the Creator because he is too glorious and his magnificence would end our life.....we cannot even look at the sun as part of his creation because it would damage us.....and our sun is tiny compared to other stars in the heavens......and a great distance away from us.....what John said is that “no man has seen God at any time”....and yet the trinitarians insist that we have.....who is not telling the truth? Thousands of people saw Jesus.

John also called Christ “the only begotten god” (monogenes theos) so perhaps you can explain how the eternal God is begotten? As it was mentioned before, the pre-human Jesus was the “beginning of God’s creation” (Rev 3:14)....so he is part of that creation. Col 1:15 also identifies him as the “firstborn of ALL creation”, so again, he is the first created being....the “only begotten son” of his Father. As Paul tells us, “all things came into existence through” the son...the “Master Workman” at his Father’s side in creation. (Col 1:16-17; Prov 8:30-31)

You cannot sustain your belief by scripture....no matter how much you protest.....it simply is not there.
No amount is scripture will convince you because you don’t want to believe it....you have a lot to lose, but so much to gain by seeing what is written, rather than what is suggested. Only God can open blinded eyes.

 

[Fred J]

Jesus Christ has always, eternally, existed with The Father, like He said, He and The Father are ONE.

That's your claim, but am 'Sola Scriptural'.

'In the beginning was the Word, ....................................'

The Word have a beginning, but before all creation, whether in Heaven or on earth. (John 1:1)

When the Son is the only begotten of GOD, therefore, He came from GOD who alone created Him in the beginning before all else. (John 3:16)

Based on, of or over all creation, whether in Heaven or on earth, the Son is the 'firstborn' before all of them. (Colossians 1:15)

Later on, all creation in Heaven or on earth, GOD created by and through and for the Son (Colossians 1:16&17 / Hebrews 1:2)

Am no Jehovah's witness nor believe their sect, when the Apostles are witnesses of Christ in the New Testament. And, am disciple and built in the foundation of the Apostles and Prophets of the New Testament.

You and others like you, have biased opinion about Christ, rather than the Scripture alone justify.

Am going to run with the scripture and the wisdom given me through it, which i've openly witnessed from.

If you want to run with your version, the Son eternally existed, and without scripture support ?

You may move on and find yourself and your followers, in a ditch one day.

No thank you

 

[BlessedPeace]

Oh dear....there is just no getting through that centuries old indoctrination.....is there?

Is that what John said? Or is that something God told Moses when he made the request to see God’s glory, way back before Jesus began his earthly mission....before the Israelites even entered the Promised Land?
What was God’s reply?.....

19 “He said: "I will let all My goodness pass before you; I will proclaim the name of the Lord before you, and I will favor when I wish to favor, and I will have compassion when I wish to have compassion."
20 And He said, "You will not be able to see My face, for man shall not see Me and live." (Exodus 33:19-20. Jewish Tanakh)

Yes, apparently we as mere mortals cannot see the Creator because he is too glorious and his magnificence would end our life.....we cannot even look at the sun as part of his creation because it would damage us.....and our sun is tiny compared to other stars in the heavens......and a great distance away from us.....what John said is that “no man has seen God at any time”....and yet the trinitarians insist that we have.....who is not telling the truth? Thousands of people saw Jesus.

John also called Christ “the only begotten god” (monogenes theos) so perhaps you can explain how the eternal God is begotten? As it was mentioned before, the pre-human Jesus was the “beginning of God’s creation” (Rev 3:14)....so he is part of that creation. Col 1:15 also identifies him as the “firstborn of ALL creation”, so again, he is the first created being....the “only begotten son” of his Father. As Paul tells us, “all things came into existence through” the son...the “Master Workman” at his Father’s side in creation. (Col 116-17; Prov 8:30-31)

You cannot sustain your belief by scripture....no matter how much you protest.....it simply is not there.
No amount is scripture will convince you because you don’t want to believe it....you have a lot to lose, but so much to gain by seeing what is written, rather than what is suggested. Only God can open blinded eyes.

Only God,yes.
Maybe he shall open yours if you repent of your sarcasm and arrogant contempt for his word.