Again... Speaking what your told and not what is found in Biblical history...
John 1:18: "No one has ever seen God."
1 John 4:12: "No one has ever seen God."
1 Timothy 6:16: "Whom no human being has seen or can see."
No one has ever seen God. Yet, thousands of people saw Jesus.
Name - This word of course brings to mind an actual name, such as John Doe. But what does it mean to a Jew.
Name - 1. designates more than the external person; it tends to express his basic character, his personality. We might say it is an emanation of the person himself. 2. authority of, expressing attributes, in acknowledgment or confession of (NABD & VED).
This definition helps us in a verse like John 17:26:
"I (Jesus) made known to them your name and I will make it known."
Jesus obviously did not come to inform the Apostles that God’s name is YHWH. He came to explain God’s character, His attributes, His will, so that we could come to truly know God and follow His ways. This understanding of the word "name" along with the definition of the next word "baptize" will clear up another misunderstood verse.
Baptize - We always think of being baptized in water, either as infants or adults. Yes, this definition is used many times in the New Testament, but there is also another meaning that we must store in the back of our minds.
Baptize - 1. to unite together, to become closely bound to (TGEL & VED).
Now we will put together the definitions of "name" and "baptize" to get the true meaning of Matthew 28:19. Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words has this commentary on this verse:
"The phrase in Matthew 28:19, ‘baptize them in the name’ would indicate that the baptized person was closely bound to, or became property of, the one in whose name he was baptized."
With these definitions we can safely paraphrase this verse as follows:
"Go out into the world and introduce or bring them into the knowledge of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit."
Which is exactly what they did. The Apostles had to go into the world and explain to the Gentiles who God is, who the Son (The Messiah) is, and also about the power that they would receive from God’s Spirit. If we take it to mean that we are to water baptize people in the actual name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit, then why is it that no one in the Bible ever uses this formula to water baptize believers?
As to 1 John 5:7.... All bible scholars have known for years this verse was added by men! It's almost embarrassing that you used it to support your view as it is well known to have been added by men to support the trinity. [[The passage is absent from the manuscripts of all ancient versions (Syrica, Armenian, thiopic, Arabic, Slavonic) The passgae is quoted by none of the greek Fathers, who had they know it, would have most certainly have employed it in the Trinitarian controversies]] Taken from "A textual Commentary On The Greek New Testament 2nd edition". Bruce Metzger