OK, but lets clarify this one point...
Was Paul quoting Deuteronomy 6:16 when he spoke the words recorded in 1 Corinthians 10:9?
Deuteronomy 6:16...
“You shall not put the Lord your God to the test, as you tested Him at Massah. (NASB)
Complete Tanakh....
"You shall not try the Lord, your God, as you tried Him in Massah. טזלֹ֣א תְנַסּ֔וּ אֶת־יְהֹוָ֖ה אֱלֹֽהֵיכֶ֑ם כַּֽאֲשֶׁ֥ר נִסִּיתֶ֖ם בַּמַּסָּֽה:"
Who was "the Lord your God" to the Jews? Yahweh is there in the Hebrew text....right?
1 Corinthians 10:9....
"Nor are we to put the Lord to the test, as some of them did, and were killed by the snakes."
Strongs cites "kyrios" as meaning.....
"κύριος kýrios, koo'-ree-os; from κῦρος kŷros (supremacy); supreme in authority, i.e. (as noun) controller; by implication, Master (as a respectful title):—God, Lord, master, Sir."
Relying then on the definition of the word "god" (theos) we can see that calling someone a "god" in some cases does not mean a deity, but can mean someone who has attained divine authority, such as those mentioned by Jesus in John 10:34-36, where Jesus speaks of human judges in Israel being called "gods" by his own Father, whereas he identified himself simply as "the son of God".
So who led Paul to believe that Jesus was Yahweh?
How does he write at 1 Corinthians 8:5-6, speaking for himself and the other apostles...
"For even if there are so-called gods whether in heaven or on earth, as indeed there are many gods and many lords, 6 yet for us there is only one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him." (NASB)
Do you see the problem here? Where did Paul ever say that Jesus was his God? If he and the other apostles agreed that Yahweh (the Father) was their God, then obviously something is wrong with the translation....or the interpretation of the translation you are suggesting....?