Jehovahs witness version says 'a god'
And that is a more accurate translation because of what "theos" means in Greek.
Look it up in Strongs Concordance.....its primary definition is
"a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities".
The Greeks were polytheists and if a god had no name, they had no word for a nameless god. The Jews had ceased using the divine name so the Greek language had a shortfall there because of another disobedience of the Jewish leadership. They were never to stop using God's name. (Exodus 3:14-15) Hence the Greeks used the definite article to identify the "one nameless God" of the Jews, making him "ho theos" rather than just "theos".
If you look at John 1:1 in Greek you will see an omission that is very visible once it is pointed out. One little word left out changed the whole meaning of that one verse.
"In en the beginning archē was eimi the ho Word logos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi with pros · ho God theos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi God theos."
You can see "
ho" four times in that verse.....it is visible in the first mention of God (ho theos) but it is omitted in the second mention of "theos".
There are two divine beings mentioned in that verse.....only one of them is Jehovah.
It was "ho logos" who became flesh, not "ho theos". (John 1:2, 14)
The Word was God vs. A God
The Jehovah Witnesses’ (New World) Translation says, “…and the Word was a god.” This is because they say that ‘a’ may be added since “Θεός” (God) doesn’t have an article. But what their “Greek Scholars” must have forgotten from their advanced Greek class is that “καὶ Θεός” is a “predicate nominative”. In other words, it doesn’t take an article because it’s not the subject – the subject is “The Word” (ὁ λόγος).
Another reason why “Θεός” does not have an article is because “God” is a proper name, and proper names don’t take articles.(why θεόν takes an article? I’m not completely sure, but I’m guessing because it’s using God’s name as a title, not His direct name. Only in the latter part of the verse is it used as His actual name (and title). But again, the literal translation could put a “the” here, and my point would remain the same).
What a load of rubbish. The question lies in the definition of "theos" which I have posted more times than I care to count.
Other people's ignorance is not our problem....if you guys want to believe that Jesus ever said he was God, that is up to you....but we see that as a breach of the First Commandment....putting other gods in Jehovah's place. (Exodus 20:3)
Christendom has three gods.....it is JW's who have only one. Jesus is a servant of his God and Father (Acts 4:27).....if you can get a trinity out of that then that is up to you. You don't seem to be able to discern the difference between "deity" and "divinity". One is God and the other is from God or has been authorized by him.
"God", like "Lord" is a title, not a name. God has only one name (Psalm 83:18) but Christendom doesn't like it, and won't use it.....that is not our problem either. Like many other Hebrew names in scripture, it has an English translation or equivalent.
When Jesus prayed that his Father's name be "hallowed", it is hard to sanctify a name you never use. (John 17:6, 26; John 10:25)
Christendom has removed the divine name from their Bibles and replaced it with a title, which God neither commanded, nor did he ever say that it was too sacred to utter as long as it was not used in a way that brought reproach on Him. As the inventor of language, the Creator knows his name in every tongue.
To remove the author's name from his own book is the height of insult. What human author would tolerate such a thing, replacing his name with just a title "Author". It was God who gave his name to man, not man who gave a name to God.
If the divine name had still been in use, the trinity could never have been adopted.
John 1:1 would have read...
"In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with Jehovah, and the Word was divine." The divine "son of God" would have remained what he said he was.