And you won’t, because all the mistranslations are designed to keep you hooked on a doctrine that Jesus himself never taught. The translators of the Bibles you accept were all trinitarians and so the translation bias is not obvious to you…..you see what you want to see, and believe what you want to believe, because of that bias in translation.….swallowed…hook, line and sinker.
Jesus said that if you build on a faulty foundation, no matter how impressive the outside appears to be, it will crumble when the storm hits….and the storm is coming.
It is the “many” who build on this faulty foundation according to Jesus…..and “few” will be found on the road to life…..why? (Matt 7:13-14; 21-23)
I use them because the truth is still contained in the Bibles that those in Christendom use….by using your own translations you cannot accuse me of referring to the NWT to back up my points. You overlook what you don’t want to see. You wouldn’t believe anything I quoted from the NWT, but you have to believe the translations that you all accept.
I like to compare different translation with a Concordance and an Interlinear……and I have to say that is very enlightening. Never have I been disappointed in the NWT’s rendering.
No, but I study the works of those who are fluent in the Bible’s languages….what about you?
My imagination has nothing to do with my conclusions….I simply take the whole Bible as one story, with one author, who tells us what happened in Eden, and how he sent his son to rectify everything so that his first purpose in creating humans to live on the earth forever, will be achieved. (Isa 55:11)
What was God’s first purpose in putting us humans here on this carefully prepared planet…..and why did he give his children free will when it has created so many problems for us? What was the reason why God chose some for life in heaven? Can you tell me?
What did Thomas believe concerning his Lord Jesus? Was he out of harmony with the other apostles, of whom Paul spoke collectively when he identified “the Father” as their ”one God”? AND Jesus as their “one Lord”? (1 Cor 8:5-6)
If the word “theos” means…
“a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities”……and can also mean….
- whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
- God's representative or viceregent
- of magistrates and judges” (Strongs)
What did Thomas’ expression really mean? He called Jesus “theos” but not “ho theos”……that one little word (“ho”) that is invariably missing from English translations of the Bible, most notably in John 1:1.
Only one “theos” in that verse is “ho theos” meaning Yahweh/Jehovah….the other is just “theos”.
Jesus is never referred to as “ho theos”.
So then what was Thomas actually saying”? Was he saying that Jesus was Yahweh? For a Jew that would be blasphemy! Jesus and his apostles, as well as his target audience, were all Jewish.
Even satan is called “theos” in 2 Cor 4:4….is he Yahweh?
Paul referred to the “many gods” of this world as “theos”. (1 Cor 8:5-6)
The word doesn’t have the exclusive meaning that Christendom wants to give it.
The depth of study in Christendom’s “theology” never even scratches the surface when it comes to genuine study of the Scriptures as a whole…..they cherry pick their mistranslated verses to prop up a doctrine that Jesus and his apostles never taught.