101G
Well-Known Member
also gadar perets, sorry I din't address your other part of your question, you said, "However, He is NOT "Lord" when it refers to a title of the Son". well is not Jesus the "Lord" the son? yes, now this, Revelation 1:1 "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified [it] by his angel unto his servant John:Actually, if I may answer, both. He is "LORD" when that title is erroneously used in place of "YHWH" and He is "Lord" when it is a translation of "Adonai" as in its first use in Genesis 15:2. However, He is NOT "Lord" when it refers to a title of the Son.
question, "who sent his angel to John?"
please explain, because you said he is both.
PICJAG.