A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiim(Amy)
He did not. It was Him his disciples and then the scribers present in the situation you quoted - Mathew. I thought you said, you understood that. trying to make us run in circles ricky?
I'm not trying to make us run in circles amy, i'm really not. If the case in Matthew 9:6, yes i do understand. And that considered done and out of discuss.
He was talking to the scribers. Because he could read their thoughts. Scribers called him blasphemth in their mind, not the disciples. And Jesus replied to them in voice using the same words as in their thoughts ''son of man'' but in an ironic manner. Can the son of man forgive sins? Can you forgive all my sins ricky? Can muhammed forgive my sins? Jesus could !
I think you are misunderstanding on my point, i gave you two kind of verse, the first one is on Matthew 9:6, and the others was on Matthew 20:17 and so on. And what i'm talking about in here right now was not on the Matthew 9:6, but Matthew 20:17. Where in the Matthew 20:17 Jesus was taking his disciples going to Jerussalem and in that time Jesus said something to his disciples, and you can read so on to that verse.
Now please don't expect me to explain each and every verse in the bible. Take this situation and do 2 x 2 yourself as to who has been addressed.
I do expect you willing to explain it to me, and i think you must have patient on giving the light, specially to a blind man, because a blind man cannot see the light so the blind can go to the last destination, but the blind need to be guide by someone, especially if the blind don't know anything about path that he walking to. I already said that before, it just i think you cannot reach my point.And what i'm though about in above was also has been given not from muslim, but other and you can see in the link below.http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-Son-of-Man.htmlBest regards, Ricky WWallahu a'lam.
He did not. It was Him his disciples and then the scribers present in the situation you quoted - Mathew. I thought you said, you understood that. trying to make us run in circles ricky?
I'm not trying to make us run in circles amy, i'm really not. If the case in Matthew 9:6, yes i do understand. And that considered done and out of discuss.
He was talking to the scribers. Because he could read their thoughts. Scribers called him blasphemth in their mind, not the disciples. And Jesus replied to them in voice using the same words as in their thoughts ''son of man'' but in an ironic manner. Can the son of man forgive sins? Can you forgive all my sins ricky? Can muhammed forgive my sins? Jesus could !
I think you are misunderstanding on my point, i gave you two kind of verse, the first one is on Matthew 9:6, and the others was on Matthew 20:17 and so on. And what i'm talking about in here right now was not on the Matthew 9:6, but Matthew 20:17. Where in the Matthew 20:17 Jesus was taking his disciples going to Jerussalem and in that time Jesus said something to his disciples, and you can read so on to that verse.
Now please don't expect me to explain each and every verse in the bible. Take this situation and do 2 x 2 yourself as to who has been addressed.
I do expect you willing to explain it to me, and i think you must have patient on giving the light, specially to a blind man, because a blind man cannot see the light so the blind can go to the last destination, but the blind need to be guide by someone, especially if the blind don't know anything about path that he walking to. I already said that before, it just i think you cannot reach my point.And what i'm though about in above was also has been given not from muslim, but other and you can see in the link below.http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-Son-of-Man.htmlBest regards, Ricky WWallahu a'lam.