Response to 20 questions for futurists (part 1)

Trekson · Dec 16, 2018

Hi 101G, You will have to show me that verse. It will be that way in heaven but not here on earth. A lot of modern opinions might consider God a sexist but there is logic to his plan. Eph. 5:22-24 explains the hierarchy and 1Tim. 2:11 is quite plain. Your argument is with God, not me.

Trekson · Dec 16, 2018

ScottA said:
That should lead you to question your position, of whether you are in the "most Christians" group or not. If so...your own words are now added to the word of God, as a warning.

I'm as prepared as I can be and by that I mean are you ready to be a martyr? Is your wife? child? It's going to get a whole lot worse.

Enoch111 · Dec 16, 2018

PLEASE NOTE: TREKSON WAS SIMPLY QUOTING ANOTHER SOURCE IN THESE QUESTIONS

Trekson said:
1. Why have Christians made failed predictions about the end of the world for 2000 years?

1. Not Christians but a few claiming to be prophets.
2. Not for 2000 years but perhaps 200 years.

Trekson said:
2. If time means nothing to God, why does God constantly use time-restricted statements about the fulfillment of prophecy—such as: must shortly take place, at hand, near, quickly, soon, last times, last hour, last days, this generation, etc.?

Because God is revealing things to men, and time is definitely a part of this world.

Trekson said:
3. If “no one knows the day or the hour,” why did Jesus frequently insist that his PAROUSIA (Second Coming)—and indeed the fulfillment of all prophecy—would be fulfilled while those living in the first century were still alive

No one knows the day of or the hour of the Rapture. But there will be signs to indicate the nearness of the Second Coming of Christ. Parousia is used for both events, therefore context determines which one is being discussed.

Trekson said:
4. If the teaching that one day is a 1000 yrs, and a 1000 years is as a day to the Lord. . . DOES THAT MEAN?—1000 years in Revelation are a single 24 hour day

No it does not. Therefore *one (a) thousand years* (Gk chilia ete) is repeated six times within seven verses.

Trekson said:
5. If any of the New Testament was written after AD 70, why is there no mention anywhere in the New Testament IN THE PAST TENSE about the incredible events surrounding the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem in that year?

It is God's prerogative to reveal whatever He wants to reveal.

Trekson said:
6. If the Great Tribulation is still future to us, why did Jesus tell the first century Christians that they could avoid it by fleeing to the mountains (Matthew 24:16; 21)? And why did the Apostle John tell his readers a few years later that THEY were in the tribulation (Revelation 1:9)?

He did nothing of the sort. And to make sure that there would be no misunderstanding He said (a) the Great Tribulation would be a totally unique event and (2) it would be immediately followed by cataclysmic cosmic events.

Trekson said:
7. If the book of Revelation is for us today, why would John write to the seven churches if it had nothing to do with them?

That's like asking why God revealed the New Heavens and the New Earth to Isaiah, when it is yet far into the future. God chooses how he presents His prophecies.

Trekson said:
8. Why does Hebrews 10:37 say that in a VERY VERY (“very” is there twice in the Greek) LITTLE WHILE Jesus would return and not delay? Were the writer of Hebrews and the other biblical writers that expressed the same thing FALSE PROPHETS?

No, they were not false prophets, and in this case time means nothing to God.

Trekson said:
9. If the biblical “last days” are in the 21st century, why does Peter and the writer of Hebrews both say the last days were in their time (Acts 2:16-17; Hebrews 1:1-2)?

The last days began with the first coming of Christ and will end with the second coming of Christ.

Trekson said:
10. If the biblical “last days” started in the first century, but continue to this day, why did Peter say the end of all things was at hand, and the judgment was about to begin when he was writing (1 Peter 4:7, 17)?

Once again this reflects the way in which God views time, and judgment did begin at that time as seen in Revelation 1-3. He may even have been indirectly predicting the events leading to the destruction of the temple.

ScottA · Dec 16, 2018

Trekson said:
I'm as prepared as I can be and by that I mean are you ready to be a martyr? Is your wife? child? It's going to get a whole lot worse.

How about that group of "most Christians" that you mention in post #77 that you are a part of, are they ready?

Trekson · Dec 16, 2018

Enoch111 said:
1. Not Christians but a few claiming to be prophets.
2. Not for 2000 years but perhaps 200 years.

Because God is revealing things to men, and time is definitely a part of this world.

No one knows the day of or the hour of the Rapture. But there will be signs to indicate the nearness of the Second Coming of Christ. Parousia is used for both events, therefore context determines which one is being discussed.

No it does not. Therefore *one (a) thousand years* (Gk chilia ete) is repeated six times within seven verses.

It is God's prerogative to reveal whatever He wants to reveal.

He did nothing of the sort. And to make sure that there would be no misunderstanding He said (a) the Great Tribulation would be a totally unique event and (2) it would be immediately followed by cataclysmic cosmic events.

That's like asking why God revealed the New Heavens and the New Earth to Isaiah, when it is yet far into the future. God chooses how he presents His prophecies.

No, they were not false prophets, and in this case time means nothing to God.

The last days began with the first coming of Christ and will end with the second coming of Christ.

Once again this reflects the way in which God views time, and judgment did begin at that time as seen in Revelation 1-3. He may even have been indirectly predicting the events leading to the destruction of the temple.

Just so you know, they were not MY questions, the answers were mine.

Trekson · Dec 16, 2018

ScottA said:
How about that group of "most Christians" that you mention in post #77 that you are a part of, are they ready?

I'm not part of that group because I'm know what to watch for as Christ told us to. It's the pre-tribs and amils that won't be ready.

Enoch111 · Dec 16, 2018

Trekson said:
Just so you know, they were not MY questions, the answers were mine.

Understood. You were responding to someone else. And those questions were really not a big deal.

ScottA · Dec 17, 2018

Trekson said:
I'm not part of that group because I'm know what to watch for as Christ told us to. It's the pre-tribs and amils that won't be ready.

Now you are going in circles. In post #77 you indicated that you need to agree to disagree with me after stating that you believe pretty much everything that "most Christians" believe. But now you are saying you are different...even though your beliefs are the same as theirs. If that were true, you would be disagreeing with them, not me.

Trekson · Dec 17, 2018

ScottA said:
Now you are going in circles. In post #77 you indicated that you need to agree to disagree with me after stating that you believe pretty much everything that "most Christians" believe. But now you are saying you are different...even though your beliefs are the same as theirs. If that were true, you would be disagreeing with them, not me.

I never implied that I was part of the majority in #77. The only thing I would say to that is that most Christians are pre-millennial and I do agree with that but after that the schism is wide spread.

Trekson · Dec 17, 2018

101G said:
GINOLJC, first thanks for the reply.

second, it that not awkward what you said? oh she can Pastor only if a male is not present? think about what you just said, "A womna can Pastor", only when a male is not around. but she can pastor right... do you see how that sounds.

third no, there is no hierarchy of GENDER in the Church of the Lord Jesus. maybe in your congergation, but not in the Church of the Lord Jesus. for there is neither MALE nor FEMALE in Christ Jesus. understand, when you said, "if a male is around". that's fleshly thinking. those who mind the things of the FLESH, well let the word of God speak.
Romans 8:5 "For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.
Romans 8:6 "For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace.

see, when you say a male must be absent in order for a femal to pastor. you speak DEATH. and another thing, no male nor female is the PASTOR of the Lord Jesus church, JESUS is the Pastor in the Person he choses. understand Pastoring is a "GIFT" and not an office to hold.
so your Gender hierarchy dose not apply to the church. only to your FAMILY as Husband and wife.

hoped that helped.

I did emphasize a qualified male.

ScottA · Dec 17, 2018

Trekson said:
I never implied that I was part of the majority in #77. The only thing I would say to that is that most Christians are pre-millennial and I do agree with that but after that the schism is wide spread.

Indeed, you did not imply, but rather you expressed many similar beliefs in answering the first 10 questions. So, being "prepared" is not accurate, anymore for you than it is for "most Christians."

Like them, and as He foretold, your Master has come...at an hour when you were not aware.

101G · Dec 17, 2018

Trekson said:
I did emphasize a qualified male.

either a qualified male, the question still remain, can a woman pastor? yes or no.

amadeus · Dec 17, 2018

101G said:
either a qualified male, the question still remain, can a woman pastor? yes or no.

The spiritual woman cannot. The spiritual woman if we see her as the Church may include you and me when we are sitting quietly listening to the anointed preacher of God. Then we too must remain silent.

God may well place a physical woman in a place where she would be according to Him the best one for the job. Did this not occur in the OT? Can it not occur now? Who am I to judge?

101G · Dec 17, 2018

First thanks for the reply. I agree we all, (male and female) must remain silent and LEARN from him.

the church of old is not the church today, hence the building of "HIS" church. and he's no respector of Person then nor back then. women in God held the highest, Carnal, or spiritual position in God, except (mediator), but we're no longer under the old.

but do we Judge God... of course not, we have his written word. and his word declare he choses whome he will. and that's the end of that. his will be done. amen

Hidden In Him · Dec 17, 2018

Nancy said:
Interesting interpretation. There is allot to look into here. Any comments @Hidden In Him ?

Hey Nancy! My apologies for not answering this post. If I hadn't been browsing back over this thread I never would have seen it, because the alerts don't always work and they didn't for me in this case.

101G shares a number of viewpoints with me and vice versa, including that the passages on women not preaching are actually written specifically in reference to wives, not women in general. I'd like to think he got it all from me, but that's probably wishful thinking on my part, LoL.

Hidden In Him · Dec 17, 2018

101G said:
1 Timothy 2:11 "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.

1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.

ok CoreIssue, it this speaking of a married woman or any woman in General?

I'll even help you out. the definition here is
G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.
1. a woman.
2. (specially) a wife.
KJV: wife, woman
Root(s): G1096

so stright to the point is this verse in context is speaking of "a" wife or any woman? ..

I teach the same thing here, 101G. I'm curious, how did you come to this understanding? It is obvious from the context of not only 1 Timothy 2:11-12 but the other relevant passages on the question as well, but not many people see it.

101G · Dec 17, 2018

Hidden In Him said:
I teach the same thing here, 101G. I'm curious, how did you come to this understanding? It is obvious from the context of not only 1 Timothy 2:11-12 but the other relevant passages on the question as well, but not many people see it.

Thanks for the reply,
I came to this conclusion in a few ways. only by the Holy Ghost who taught me this truth. and he showed me many way to understand it.

one of the main ways was in the term G2338, thelus and the term G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.
both apply to a woman, but one apply to a married woman.

armed with that information just reading in context the scriptures are revealed.

as in
1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.

if one just listen to the scripture, the Holy Ghost will point it out to you. here in 1 Corinthians 14:34 it's not speaking to women at all, but to their husbands. and the very next verse bring it out, "Let them ask their "HUSBAND" at home".

sometimes we might need to read and re-read verse again and compare them with other scriptures in other places.
Isaiah 28:10 "For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:

by finding one thing over here then I see it apply with something over there. then one can build on another scripture, this is how I understood that a woman could preach, teach and ... Pastor.

ScottA · Dec 17, 2018

101G said:
I love that verse, and how people think it should go. ....... out of context.

stright to the point.
1 Timothy 2:11 "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.

1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.

ok CoreIssue, it this speaking of a married woman or any woman in General?

I'll even help you out. the definition here is
G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.
1. a woman.
2. (specially) a wife.
KJV: wife, woman
Root(s): G1096

so stright to the point is this verse in context is speaking of "a" wife or any woman? ..

cain't wait for your reply.

Good one!

And since the context is the church...who are we really talking about?

Everyone!

Hidden In Him · Dec 17, 2018

101G said:
1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.

if one just listen to the scripture, the Holy Ghost will point it out to you. here in 1 Corinthians 14:34 it's not speaking to women at all, but to their husbands. and the very next verse bring it out, "Let them ask their "HUSBAND" at home".

Yeah. I went round and round with one of our members here back in June. He kept quoting the verses as they are translated in one of the English translations (KJV I think) to support his argument, and I was like, "No, you are assuming that translation is correct, but look at the context."

You might find my initial post interesting (see Post #174), as well as the previous posts by @OzSpen. He takes a similar view about women in ministry.
Looking for advice: Can women be pastors

101G · Dec 17, 2018

Hidden In Him said:
Yeah. I went round and round with one of our members here back in June. He kept quoting the verses as they are translated in one of the English translations (KJV I think) to support his argument, and I was like, "No, you are assuming that translation is correct, but look at the context."

You might find my initial post interesting (see Post #174), as well as the previous posts by @OzSpen. He takes a similar view about women in ministry.
Looking for advice: Can women be pastors

good post, #174.
yes, this is about husband and wife in the church. as said, if the context was G2338, thelus, a Female, then yes it's all women. but thank God for Good teaches who are lead by the Holy Ghost.

Keep up the good work.

Response to 20 questions for futurists (part 1)

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