True Trinity.

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101G

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The two are one. 1 x 1 = 1.
first ERROR, there is no THEY as in separate persons. he, and him, listen, Isaiah 63:5 "And I looked, and there was none to help; and I wondered that there was none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me." the Lord Jesus is the ARM of God in Flesh. he's the POWER of God. now that "ARM" of God is a he. listen,
Isaiah 53:1 "Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?"
Isaiah 53:2 "For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him." (see JBF, him is he, his OWN ARM, understand that first before we go any futher).

Isaiah 53:3 "He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not."
Isaiah 53:4 "Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted."

see God's OWN ARM is him, God himself in flesh. see what you was saying about the eternal one in Isaiah. that Jesus without flesh in the OT, listen,
1 Peter 1:10 "Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you:"
1 Peter 1:11 "Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow."

question JBF, where was Christ? ... IN THEM, got it now? JESUS who is Spirit was in the prophets of OLD, the holy Ghost. listen to Peter again,
2 Peter 1:21 "For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."

see JBF, 1 Peter 1:11 states, "Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them". who was in them, the prophets of OLD?... yes JESUS the Holy Spirit.

How hard is it to understand scriptures.

I suggest you read 1 Peter 1:10 & 11, and 2 Peter 1:21 again, and again,....

PICJAG.
 

justbyfaith

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there is no THEY as in separate persons.

I agree...however there is a THEY in distinct Persons...while they are yet at the same time the same Person.

question JBF, where was Christ? ... IN THEM, got it now? JESUS who is Spirit was in the prophets of OLD, the holy Ghost.

I don't know if this will help your understanding, but: when Jesus released the Holy Ghost back to the Father, Luke 23:46, He released Him into eternity, to fill all things...He (the Holy Spirit) ascended to once again be outside of time. scripture, Ephesians 4:10.

Thus the Holy Ghost, after He was released to the Father from Jesus' body into eternity to "stand" next to the Father in eternity, is able also to descend into any place in time (before or after the crucifixion) and fill the hearts of Old Testament prophets and New Testament saints.

The Holy Ghost was given as the result of Jesus' death on the Cross and could not be given "before" that, scripture, John 7:39, Luke 23:46.
 

101G

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101G said: ↑
there is no THEY as in separate persons.

I agree...however there is a THEY in distinct Persons...while they are yet at the same time the same Person.

First thanks for the reply, ok, lets see the distinctions, please post the distictions. second,
I don't know if this will help your understanding, but: when Jesus released the Holy Ghost back to the Father, Luke 23:46, He released Him into eternity, to fill all things...He (the Holy Spirit) ascended to once again be outside of time. scripture, Ephesians 4:10.

Thus the Holy Ghost, after He was released to the Father from Jesus' body into eternity to "stand" next to the Father in eternity, is able also to descend into any place in time (before or after the crucifixion) and fill the hearts of Old Testament prophets and New Testament saints.

The Holy Ghost was given as the result of Jesus' death on the Cross and could not be given "before" that, scripture, John 7:39, Luke 23:46.
the HOLY GHOST IS THE FATHER, and he is the SON. the Holy Ghost is the ONLY one in the Godhead, who is JESUS. did you read anything I posted? re-read Post #361.

now please post your distinctions.

PICJAG.
 

justbyfaith

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the HOLY GHOST IS THE FATHER, and he is the SON. the Holy Ghost is the ONLY one in the Godhead, who is JESUS. did you read anything I posted? re-read Post #361.

now please post your distinctions.
I have already posted them; but here is another:

If anyone blasphemes the Son they can have forgiveness, but if they blaspheme the Holy Ghost they have never forgiveness but are in danger of eternal damnation (Mark 3:28-29, Matthew 12:31-32).

How then are they the same Person?

I tell you truly that they ARE the same Person; but that if anyone blasphemes against the Son they are blaspheming a God-man rather than the Holy Spirit of God alone; because there is a hypostatic union.

The Father is infinite and inhabits eternity; the Son inhabits a body of finite human flesh.

Jesus said, My Father is greater than I.

This does not mean that He isn't God or equal to God (concerning His Deity); but it does mean that concerning the humanity of Jesus, the Father is greater.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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The one thing that I continue to find amazing is that people believe that Jesus was ok with people taking his father personal name out of Scripture. God is the person who had his personal name put in Scripture . what am I talking about? At such scriptures as Deuteronomy 6:4 everyone wants you to believe that what was originally there is a Hebrew or Greek word translated Lord, but what was originally there is the four Hebrew consonants YHWH. The point I'm making is that when Jesus quoted a scripture with the four Hebrew consonants YHWH in that Scripture he didn't pronounce the word Lord, he pronounced his Father personal name which was represented in those scriptures with YHWH that he quoted. In other words at Deuteronomy 6:4 he would say:
Deuteronomy 6:4, Hear, O Israel, The YHWH our God is one YHWH.

Mark 12:29, And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The YHWH our God is one YHWH.

So Jesus would pronounce that personal name that is represented by YHWH. Jesus wasn't saying he was that person represented by YHWH, but he was saying the person who's name is represented by the four Hebrew consonants YHWH is our God.
 

justbyfaith

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Is not Jesus' Father YHWH?

Now look at Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21, and you will see that YHWH is in fact the Lord of heaven and earth.

There is one Lord according to holy scripture (Ephesians 4:5, 1 Corinthians 8:6). That Lord is the Father, YHWH (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). However, no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3), even the Spirit of truth.

Therefore I say to you by the Spirit of truth that Jesus is the Lord, the Father, YHWH.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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Is not Jesus' Father YHWH?

Now look at Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21, and you will see that YHWH is in fact the Lord of heaven and earth.

There is one Lord according to holy scripture (Ephesians 4:5, 1 Corinthians 8:6). That Lord is the Father, YHWH (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). However, no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3), even the Spirit of truth.

Therefore I say to you by the Spirit of truth that Jesus is the Lord, the Father, YHWH.

The Greek word used here, Kyʹri·os (Lord), is generally used as a noun in the Scriptures. Strictly speaking, it is an adjective signifying the possessing of power (kyʹros) or authority. It appears in every book of the Christian Greek Scriptures except in Paul’s letter to Titus and the letters of John. As God’s created Son and Servant, Jesus Christ properly addresses his Father and God (Joh 20:17) as “Lord” (Kyʹri·os), the One having superior power and authority, his Head. (Mt 11:25; 1Co 11:3) However, the title “Lord,” as used in the Bible, is not limited to Jehovah God. It is also used with reference to Jesus Christ (Mt 7:21; Ro 1:4, 7), one of the heavenly elders seen by John in vision (Re 7:13, 14), angels (Da 12:8), humans (Ac 16:16, 19, 30; here rendered “masters” or “sirs”), and false deities (1Co 8:5). Some claim that the phrase “Jesus is Lord” means that he and his Father, Jehovah, are the same person. However, the context makes it clear that this cannot be the case, since “God raised [Jesus] up from the dead.” Jesus’ authority as Lord was given to him by the Father.—Mt 28:18; Joh 3:35; 5:19, 30.
You honestly believe that someone gave The True God Jehovah his authority, I don't think so.

In the Greek text the expression in Philippians 2:11, namely, KYRIOS YESOUS. The Greek word kyʹrios is a title by which a person of a certain name is to be addressed. Hence it would be wrong, in fact ridiculous, to render that expression KYRIOS YESOUS “ as Jehovah Jesus.” None of the Hebrew translations render it “Jehovah Jesus,” but recognize the Greek word kyʹrios there as a title and hence use the Hebrew word Adón, meaning Lord, instead of the name Jehovah. So the scripture philippians 2:11 isn't saying Jesus is Jehovah.

At 1 Corinthians 12:3 no one who doesn't have God Holy Spirit can confess or believe that God can use his Only Begotten Son who's a part of his creation the most superior of his creation and make him a lord, making everyone and every authority subject to his Only Begotten Son except his Father and God who made everyone and all authority subject to his Only Begotten Son. Those who don't have God Holy Spirit can ever believe and confess that The True God Jehovah has the power and authority to do that.
 

Cooper

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The one thing that I continue to find amazing is that people believe that Jesus was ok with people taking his father personal name out of Scripture. God is the person who had his personal name put in Scripture . what am I talking about? At such scriptures as Deuteronomy 6:4 everyone wants you to believe that what was originally there is a Hebrew or Greek word translated Lord, but what was originally there is the four Hebrew consonants YHWH. The point I'm making is that when Jesus quoted a scripture with the four Hebrew consonants YHWH in that Scripture he didn't pronounce the word Lord, he pronounced his Father personal name which was represented in those scriptures with YHWH that he quoted. In other words at Deuteronomy 6:4 he would say:
Deuteronomy 6:4, Hear, O Israel, The YHWH our God is one YHWH.

Mark 12:29, And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The YHWH our God is one YHWH.

So Jesus would pronounce that personal name that is represented by YHWH. Jesus wasn't saying he was that person represented by YHWH, but he was saying the person who's name is represented by the four Hebrew consonants YHWH is our God.
Isaiah 9:6 tells us who Jesus is. Matthew 1:21 tells us what we are to call him here on earth and two verses further on in Matthew 1:23 we are told he is God with us.

A different name, in a different environment, and that is all.

When Harry Webb moved from India to England he called himself Cliffe Richards. He is the same person in both places only the name was changed.
 
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101G

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I have already posted them; but here is another:

If anyone blasphemes the Son they can have forgiveness, but if they blaspheme the Holy Ghost they have never forgiveness but are in danger of eternal damnation (Mark 3:28-29, Matthew 12:31-32).
Mark 3:28 "Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme:"
Mark 3:29 "But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation:"
Matthew 12:31 "Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men."
Matthew 12:32 "And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come."
the Son of man in flesh was G2758 κενόω kenoo, so there is no distiction between Jesus in flesh and men in flesh. BINGO, it just when he is glorified in it. :eek:

How then are they the same Person?
according to the Spirit, and the diversified "spirit" was G2758 κενόω kenoo, but the spirit in the G243 allos stated is of the same "sort".
I tell you truly that they ARE the same Person; but that if anyone blasphemes against the Son they are blaspheming a God-man rather than the Holy Spirit of God alone; because there is a hypostatic union.
the same in G243 Allos in sort, and not in G2758 κενόω kenoo ... (smile)... :D

The Father is infinite and inhabits eternity; the Son inhabits a body of finite human flesh.
ERROR, not when in the state of being G2758 κενόω kenoo in natural flesf, JESUS is the Father, in natural flesh he is in a state of Intrinsic Spatial. (man this is too easy.)

Jesus said, My Father is greater than I.

I have answered this I don't know how many times, but I'll make it short and to the point. while G2758 κενόω kenoo in natural flesh he is not Greater in quantity, but is in quality... :cool: until he rose is he "EQUAL" ... "WITH", because he is the Father "diversified" in glorified flesh.... (this is just too easy).
This does not mean that He isn't God or equal to God (concerning His Deity); but it does mean that concerning the humanity of Jesus, the Father is greater.
Another ERROR on your part, JESUS is not equal "TO" anyone, he "IS" all by himself. now in the "diversified" stated he is equal ... "WITH" ... not equal .. "TO" big difference. equal with according to the Spirit in G243 allos and not according to the flesh in a G2758 κενόω kenoo state, got it now?

see, I have taken my time and answered your questions, one by one. it right that you answer my question. just reconcile John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24 and you will see who is the Father and the Son, the same person. now can you do that?

Looking to hear your answer. and this will eliminate any Father, Son, and Holy Spirit confusion.

PICJAG.
 

101G

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The one thing that I continue to find amazing is that people believe that Jesus was ok with people taking his father personal name out of Scripture. God is the person who had his personal name put in Scripture . what am I talking about? At such scriptures as Deuteronomy 6:4 everyone wants you to believe that what was originally there is a Hebrew or Greek word translated Lord, but what was originally there is the four Hebrew consonants YHWH. The point I'm making is that when Jesus quoted a scripture with the four Hebrew consonants YHWH in that Scripture he didn't pronounce the word Lord, he pronounced his Father personal name which was represented in those scriptures with YHWH that he quoted. In other words at Deuteronomy 6:4 he would say:
Deuteronomy 6:4, Hear, O Israel, The YHWH our God is one YHWH.

Mark 12:29, And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The YHWH our God is one YHWH.

So Jesus would pronounce that personal name that is represented by YHWH. Jesus wasn't saying he was that person represented by YHWH, but he was saying the person who's name is represented by the four Hebrew consonants YHWH is our God.
ERROR, YHWH/I AM or H1961 הָיָה hayah (haw-yaw) v. is a VERB, and verbs are not personal names. YHWH is what, God is not WHO he is in Name.

so that's incorrect.

PICJAG.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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Isaiah 9:6-Eternal Father
When Jesus was on earth as a man he had the power to have a family of his own by natural human means. He did not bring forth that family, but gave up that potential in his sacrifice. As he said: “The Son of man came, not to be ministered to, but to minister and to give his soul a ransom in exchange for many.” (Matthew 20:28) Jesus therefore became the “last Adam.” The first Adam brought forth a family, an imperfect one, with bad traits. Jesus Christ the last Adam brings forth a family that attains to righteousness. Individuals can transfer from the family of the first Adam and be regenerated through the righteousness of Jesus Christ the last Adam, and, by putting on the new personality, can come to be ‘in his image.’ They can be cleaned up as sons of the “last Adam.”—1 Corinthians 15:45, 49.
The Bible calls Jesus “the last Adam,” “a life-giving spirit.” (1 Corinthians 15:45) He is properly called the “Eternal Father” of the future perfect human race.

Isaiah 9:6 mighty God

The title “Mighty God” applied to Jesus Christ at Isaiah 9:6 is used to prove that Jesus is God, because Isaiah 10:21 and Jeremiah 32:18 speak of Jehovah God as “mighty God.” But here again too much is read into the texts. Only the superlatives and the infinites can dogmatically be limited to Jehovah, such as “the Most High.” Jesus is a god, a mighty god, and so is Jehovah a God, a mighty God. But additionally, Jehovah is the mighty God and also the God Almighty. The term in the Hebrew, el gibbór, “mighty God,” is not limited to Jehovah, but the term el Shaddái, “God Almighty,” is.—Gen. 17:1.

Others quote Isaiah 43:10-"Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.” but too much is read into this text than it warrants by those who use it to prove that Jesus Christ is equal with God. The claim is made that this text proves that Jesus could not have been created by God but must have existed from eternity, otherwise he would have been a god that came after God, and God says that there shall be no god after him. Such an argument, however, shows a misunderstanding of the text. The point Jehovah is here making is that he had no predecessors, before him no god existed. How could there be a god before him, since he always was? Neither will there be any god after him, that is, he will never have any successors, because he will always be the Supreme Sovereign, Jehovah God. That God Jehovah did produce other gods, the Scriptures show: “I say, ‘You are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you; nevertheless, you shall die like men, and fall like any prince.’” So also the Logos was a god created by Jehovah.—Ps. 82:

Far from the Scriptures teaching that Jesus Christ is a coequal deity, a God equal to Jehovah God, they continually show that he is inferior to his Father. He himself said: “The Father is greater than I.” And even after his resurrection he referred to Jehovah, not as his equal, but as his God, saying to Mary: “Go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.” Jehovah is the Father and God of Jesus, but is Jesus the Father and God of Jehovah? No.—John 14:28; 20:17.

In particular does the apostle Paul show the distinction between Jehovah and Jesus Christ. He did not teach that God and Christ are equals, but clearly reiterated time and again that Jesus occupies an inferior position: “For us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.” Further, he shows that even as “all things are yours,” so “you are Christ’s; and Christ is God’s.” Yes, even as Christians belong to their Head and Master, Jesus Christ, so Jesus Christ belongs to his Head and Master, Jehovah God.—1 Cor. 8:6; 3:21, 23.

Referring to the same thing, the apostle farther on states: “The head of every man is Christ, the head of a woman is her husband, and the head of Christ is God.” What could be clearer than that? And that this relationship will continue throughout eternity is apparent from the apostle Paul’s further words: “Then comes the end, when [Christ] delivers the kingdom to God the Father after destroying every rule and every authority and power. When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things under him, that God may be everything to every one.”—1 Cor. 11:3; 15:24, 28.

In view of the foregoing, what may briefly be said in answer to the question: What does the Bible say about the divinity of Christ? That there was a time when Jesus was not; that before he was born of Mary he had an existence in heaven as a glorious spirit creature, the Word, a god; that upon coming to earth he was wholly a perfect human, not more, not less than the perfect first Adam as far as his nature was concerned; and that since his resurrection he is a mighty, glorious divine spirit, incorruptible and immortal; that never at any time has Jesus been equal to his Father but is ever subordinate to him.
 

101G

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Everlasting Father and Mighty God are only TITLES of God, who is Jesus.

and as for God is the head of "CHRIST", Christ is a title. JESUS is the personal Name. there is no where in the bible that say God is the head of JESUS who God is.

1 Corinthians 11:3 "But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God."

Christ, man, and God are all titles, no personal name are used. For Jesus is God and Christ. for Jesus holds both the titles God as Spirit "Father", Everlasting, None-diversified, and Christ, "Son", diversified in flesh.

as for 1 Corinthians 8:6 "But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him."
John 1:3 the Word who is JESUS is "Lord" who made all things. and Isaiah 44:24, God who is Jesus is "LORD" all caps. same one person nothing new.
Isaiah 43:10 that's the LORD JESUS. as well as the two other verses right below it, Isaiah 43:14 "Thus saith the LORD, your redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; For your sake I have sent to Babylon, and have brought down all their nobles, and the Chaldeans, whose cry is in the ships."Isaiah 43:15 "I am the LORD, your Holy One, the creator of Israel, your King."
JESUS is REDEEMER, he's CREATOR, and he's KING... of kings, and LORD of Lords

these scriptures are easy to debunk in the right hands.

PICJAG.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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Immanuel

Some have claimed that by applying the name Immanuel to Jesus, the Bible teaches that Jesus is God. However, by this logic the young man Elihu, who comforted and corrected Job, was also God. Why? His name means “My God Is He.”

Jesus never claimed to be God. (John 14:28; Philippians 2:5, 6) But he did reflect his Father’s personality perfectly, and he fulfilled all of God’s promises regarding the Messiah. (John 14:9; 2 Corinthians 1:20) The name Immanuel well describes Jesus’ role as the Messianic Seed, a descendant of David, the one who proves that God is with those who worship Him.
 

101G

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the name of the arch angel "Michael" means "LIKE GOD", but that name don't make him God.

and Emmanuel is not God name, it's the interpretation of what he is doing. JESUS, English, is God personal name, Yeshua, is his name in Hebrew.

PICJAG.
 

101G

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there is only one "Lord", correct, 1 Corinthians 8:6 "But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him."

Jesus is "Lord", correct, but is he the Father? lets see.

2 Corinthians 6:17 "Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you,
2 Corinthians 6:18 "And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty.
here clearly is the verse that states our Lord as the Almighty as God. and "Father" is capitalized. BINGO.

John 13:13 "Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am. that's JESUS

Jesus is Father

PICJAG.
 

justbyfaith

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Some claim that the phrase “Jesus is Lord” means that he and his Father, Jehovah, are the same person. However, the context makes it clear that this cannot be the case, since “God raised [Jesus] up from the dead.”

According to John 10:18, Jesus raised Himself from the dead,. I agree that it was God who raised Him; for He is God.

Hence it would be wrong, in fact ridiculous, to render that expression KYRIOS YESOUS “ as Jehovah Jesus.”

There is only one name under heaven given among men whereby we must be saved; and that is the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth (Acts of the Apostles 4:10-12). Nevertheless, in Romans 10:13, the Bible tells us that "Whosoever shall call upon the name of the LORD shall be saved."

The name of the LORD is Jesus Christ of Nazareth. And even if it be referring to "the lord", in uncapitalizing the "l" in Lord you would be making Jesus one of many lords, when scripture says there is one Lord Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 8:6). If you say that in that verse, "Lord" ought to be uncapitalized, then you make that verse in contradiction to 1 Corinthians 8:5, which says that there are many "lords", small "k". How many Lords are there; one or many? The answer: one. How many lords? The answer: many. Therefore capitalization not only matters; it is inspired.

At 1 Corinthians 12:3 no one who doesn't have God Holy Spirit can confess or believe that God can use his Only Begotten Son who's a part of his creation the most superior of his creation and make him a lord,

In my kjv it says that no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost.

The Bible calls Jesus “the last Adam,” “a life-giving spirit.”

Jesus Christ is come in the flesh (1 John 4:1-3, 2 John 1:7); and is risen bodily from the dead (John 2:19-21).


See Psalms 50:1 (kjv):

Psa 50:1, [[A Psalm of Asaph.]] The mighty God, even the LORD, hath spoken, and called the earth from the rising of the sun unto the going down thereof.

So also the Logos was a god created by Jehovah.—Ps. 82:

One of you main problems as a JW is that you do not accept the authority of the kjv; especially when it states that "In the beginning was the Word; and the Word was with God: and the Word was God." I tell you truly that this is the correct translation; the NeWT has perverted it.

He himself said: “The Father is greater than I.” And even after his resurrection he referred to Jehovah, not as his equal, but as his God,

In John 5:17-18, Jesus truly violated the sabbath law and truly claimed to be equal to the Father.

“For us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.”

There is one Lord Jesus Christ. And yet there is one Lord, the Father (Ephesians 4:5, Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21).

That there was a time when Jesus was not; that before he was born of Mary he had an existence in heaven as a glorious spirit creature, the Word, a god;

The Word was God. The NeWT does indeed mistranslate and pervert this verse so that it is in line with the abomination of the JW's; their denial of the essential doctrine (John 8:24) of Christ's Deity.

Jesus never claimed to be God. (John 14:28; Philippians 2:5, 6)

The scribes and Pharisees would disagree with you. When Jesus said, I and the Father are one, they picked up stones to stone Him. When He asked them for what good work they were stoning Him for, they responded, for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a Man, claim to be God. So his claim was not taken to mean that Jesus and the Father are one in purpose. They understood that He was claiming to be truly one with the Father.
 
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