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Featured How big is Jesus Christ now?

Discussion in 'Christian Theology Forum' started by Truther, May 2, 2020.

  1. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    Not at all.
    The predominate world language of the 1st century church(ancient Greek) which the N.T. was written in, became obsolete and untranslatable accurately these 2000 years later.
    The predominant world language 2000 years later is English, which explains how Peter was right saying God's word endurETH forever.

    God ordained the king to hire 50 plus translators to create our English Bible as the ancient Greek faded in understanding.

    God keeps His promises.
     
  2. reformed1689

    reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    And that is where you are wrong and ignorant.

    The KJV translators disagree that they were the end all be all.
     
  3. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    Keep searching.

    Someday you may find the pure word of God, even if you have to invent it with your Strongs
    etc.

    Be diligent.
     
  4. reformed1689

    reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Again, Strongs has nothing to do with it. You are just ignorant and have no idea what you are talking about like a brainwashed buffoon..
     
  5. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    Better than being "open minded" to the latest and greatest "Greek".

    Have fun with your "Greek word of God", as it evolves into an eventual new translation.
     
  6. reformed1689

    reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    You have yet to prove how anything has changed, because it hasn't.
     
  7. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    Sure.

    Just look at the ministers long list of alternative words in Strongs etc, that offer new and exciting meanings to the KJV that the KJV translators forgot to add....every Sunday behind the pulpit.

    This new phenomenon we see on Sundays was unheard of 40 years ago.

    (Preacher)"....the KJV says this, but the Strongs etc says this, this and this.....I bet you never knew that, huh church"?
     
  8. reformed1689

    reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Again, what you are talking about is not reality. And again, Scripture was not written in English. KJV translators said that translation work and updates should CONTINUE. Apparently you have never read the translator's note in the KJV. And which KJV do you use?
     
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  9. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    The KJV is what I use.

    You know, what they used to call "the word of God" before the closet translator phenomenon was hatched out of modern seminaries.

    That English translation.
     
  10. bbyrd009

    bbyrd009 Groper

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    (onward Christian Laaaa-aaw-yers
    marching as to war...)

    How big is Jesus Christ Superstar now?
     
  11. reformed1689

    reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    WHICH KJV?
     
  12. reformed1689

    reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    You don't even know that there are MULTIPLE versions of the KJV? Oh brother. You are more ignorant than I feared.
     
  13. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    I use the latest(not NKJV)
     
  14. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    He is omnipresent.
     
  15. reformed1689

    reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    So you don't even use the original KJV which blows your argument out about those divine translators back in the 1600's. You have no idea what you are talking about.
     
  16. bbyrd009

    bbyrd009 Groper

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    in that case He got nowhere to "return" to, right?
     
  17. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    Right, except for in a physical body for all to see.
     
  18. Truther

    Truther Well-Known Member

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    Revisions say the same thing.
     
  19. bbyrd009

    bbyrd009 Groper

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    this just strikes me as making the Body of Christ of no effect, as well as removing salvation to tomorrow, now tomorrow is the day that the Lord has made, right. Also what about those Standing There who were promised that they would see Him come down? Also a kingdom that obviously comes by observation, right. On and on

    it amounts to magical malarkey imo
     
  20. reformed1689

    reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    That depends on what you mean by "say the same thing." If by that you mean, gives the same meaning, then I agree with you, but then you have to concede so do modern translations.

    If by that you mean, only spellings have changed then no, you are flat wrong. Words themselves have changed.
     
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